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Exam Code: SSCP

Exam Name: ISC (System Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP) )

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NO.1 One method that can reduce exposure to malicious code is to run
applications as generic accounts with little or no privileges.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 ______________ is a major component of an overall risk management program.
Answer: Risk assessment

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NO.3 Passwords should be changed every ________ days at a minimum.
90 days is the recommended minimum, but some resources will tell you that 30-60 days is
ideal.
Answer: 90

NO.4 Layer 4 in the DoD model overlaps with which layer(s) of the
OSI model?
A. Layer 7 - Application Layer
B. Layers 2, 3, & 4 - Data Link, Network, and Transport Layers
C. Layer 3 - Network Layer
D. Layers 5, 6, & 7 - Session, Presentation, and Application Layers
Answer: D

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NO.5 Cable modems are less secure than DSL connections because cable modems are shared
with other subscribers?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 The act of intercepting the first message in a public key exchange and substituting a bogus key
for the original key is an example of which style of attack?
A. Spoofing
B. Hijacking
C. Man In The Middle
D. Social Engineering
E. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the main difference between computer abuse and
computer crime?
A. Amount of damage
B. Intentions of the perpetrator
C. Method of compromise
D. Abuse = company insider; crime = company outsider
Answer: B

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NO.8 What security principle is based on the division of job responsibilities - designed to prevent
fraud?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Separation of Duties
C. Information Systems Auditing
D. Concept of Least Privilege
Answer: B

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NO.9 DES - Data Encryption standard has a 128 bit key and is very difficult to break.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.10 When an employee leaves the company, their network access account should be
__________?
Answer: Disable

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NO.11 If Big Texastelephone company suddenly started billing you for caller ID and call
forwarding without your permission, this practice is referred to as __________________.
Answer: Cramming

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NO.12 IKE - Internet Key Exchange is often used in conjunction with
what security standard?
A. SSL
B. OPSEC
C. IPSEC
D. Kerberos
E. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.13 _____ is the authoritative entity which lists port assignments
A. IANA
B. ISSA
C. Network Solutions
D. Register.com
E. InterNIC
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the concepts best describes Availability in relation to
computer resources?
A. Users can gain access to any resource upon request (assuming they have proper permissions)
B. Users can make authorized changes to data
C. Users can be assured that the data content has not been altered
D. None of the concepts describes Availability properly
Answer: A

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NO.15 The ultimate goal of a computer forensics specialist is to ___________________.
A. Testify in court as an expert witness
B. Preserve electronic evidence and protect it from any alteration
C. Protect the company's reputation
D. Investigate the computer crime
Answer: B

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NO.16 A standardized list of the most common security weaknesses and exploits is the
__________.
A. SANS Top 10
B. CSI/FBI Computer Crime Study
C. CVE - Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
D. CERT Top 10
Answer: C

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NO.17 ____________ is a file system that was poorly designed and has numerous security flaws.
A. NTS
B. RPC
C. TCP
D. NFS
E. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.18 A Security Reference Monitor relates to which DoD security
standard?
A. LC3
B. C2
C. D1
D. L2TP
E. None of the items listed
Answer: B

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NO.19 A salami attack refers to what type of activity?
A. Embedding or hiding data inside of a legitimate communication - a picture, etc.
B. Hijacking a session and stealing passwords
C. Committing computer crimes in such small doses that they almost go unnoticed
D. Setting a program to attack a website at 11:59 am on New Year's Eve
Answer: C

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NO.20 There are 5 classes of IP addresses available, but only 3 classes are in common use today,
identify the three: (Choose three)
A. Class A: 1-126
B. Class B: 128-191
C. Class C: 192-223
D. Class D: 224-255
E. Class E: 0.0.0.0 - 127.0.0.1
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.21 Multi-partite viruses perform which functions?
A. Infect multiple partitions
B. Infect multiple boot sectors
C. Infect numerous workstations
D. Combine both boot and file virus behavior
Answer: D

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NO.22 Is the person who is attempting to log on really who they say they are? What form of access
control does this questions stem from?
A. Authorization
B. Authentication
C. Kerberos
D. Mandatory Access Control
Answer: B

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NO.23 An attempt to break an encryption algorithm is called _____________.
Answer: Cryptanalysis

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NO.24 HTTP, FTP, SMTP reside at which layer of the OSI model?
A. Layer 1 - Physical
B. Layer 3 - Network
C. Layer 4 - Transport
D. Layer 7 - Application
E. Layer 2 - Data Link
Answer: D

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NO.25 The ability to identify and audit a user and his / her actions is known as ____________.
A. Journaling
B. Auditing
C. Accessibility
D. Accountability
E. Forensics
Answer: D

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NO.26 Trend Analysis involves analyzing historical ___________ files in order to look for patterns
of abuse or misuse.
Answer: Log files

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NO.27 Which form of media is handled at the Physical Layer (Layer 1) of the OSI Reference
Model?
A. MAC
B. L2TP
C. SSL
D. HTTP
E. Ethernet
Answer: E

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NO.28 What are some of the major differences of Qualitative vs. Quantitative methods of performing
risk analysis? (Choose all that apply)
A. Quantitative analysis uses numeric values
B. Qualitative analysis uses numeric values
C. Quantitative analysis is more time consuming
D. Qualitative analysis is more time consuming
E. Quantitative analysis is based on Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) formulas
F. Qualitative analysis is based on Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) formulas
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.29 Wiretapping is an example of a passive network attack?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.30 Instructions or code that executes on an end user's machine from a web browser is known
as __________ code.
A. Active X
B. JavaScript
C. Malware
D. Windows Scripting
E. Mobile
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 000-732

Exam Name: IBM (DB2 9 for z/OS Database Administrator)

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NO.1 A company uses TRUSTED CONTEXT "ERP1" and ROLE "ERP_ROLE" as a security mechanism
to limit security exposure for an application. All the DB2 objects (databases, table spaces, tables,
indexes, views, plans and packages) have been created by that ROLE. The ROLE "ERP_ROLE"
has been assigned to User ID "DBA01" in order to perform DBA related tasks. When the user
"DBA01" leaves the company, the authorization ID is removed. Which of the following statements
are correct? (Select two answers)
A.None of these DB2 objects need to be recreated to re-grant the privileges.
B.The related plans and packages have to be recreated and the privileges re-granted.
C.When removing user "DBA01" privileges, none of these DB2 objects need to be dropped.
D.Only the related databases, table spaces, tables, indexes and views need to be recreated and the
privileges re-granted.
E.To remove the privileges of user "DBA01" on these related plans and packages, they have to be
dropped and as a result all associated privileges are revoked.
Correct:A C

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NO.2 At which of the following times is the access control authorization routine (DSNX@XAC)
invoked?
A.At DB2 startup.
B.When executing a DB2 GRANT statement.
C.When DB2 has cached authorization information.
D.During any authorization check if NO was specified in the USE PROTECTION field of the DSNTIPP
panel.
Correct:A

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NO.3 An application has been running in production for a long time. The size of the objects involved
has not changed, but the application is running much slower than in the beginning. When should
the DBA consider manually REBINDing the application?
A.After REORGing the objects with inline statistics.
B.When dynamic SQL is used, but only after REORG and RUNSTATS has been performed.
C.Actually it is NOT recommended to perform manual rebinds but rather have DB2 perform automatic
rebinds.
D.If the size of the objects has not changed after gathering RUNSTATS data, the access path is very
unlikely to change, and therefore no REBIND is needed.
Correct:A

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NO.4 A DBA wishes to audit all access to the non-audited table OWNER.EMPLOYEE. Assuming no
audit traces are started, which of the following steps are needed to audit access to this table?
A.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (5)
B.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5)
C.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE AUDIT ALL
D.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE DATA CAPTURE
CHANGES
Correct:C

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NO.5 An audit trace shows that TSO user TSOID1, with DBADM authority, is continually attempting to
update a table in DB2 subsystem DSN1 that is not supposed to be updated. Which of the following
will prevent access to the DB2 subsystem?
A.REVOKE DBADM FROM TSOID1
B.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.TSO to NONE
C.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to READ
D.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to NONE
Correct:D

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NO.6 Which of the following buffer pool thresholds CANNOT be changed by the DBA?
A.Deferred write threshold (DWQT)
B.Immediate write threshold (IWTH)
C.Vertical deferred write threshold (VDWQT)
D.Virtual buffer pool assisting parallel sequential threshold (VPXPSEQT)
Correct:B

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NO.7 An end-user indicates that the DRDA client application accessing DB2 for z/OS is very slow.
However, other local applications accessing the same tables are running fine. What would
indicate that this could be a DB2 problem?
A.Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 CPU time minus non-nested CLASS 2 CPU time. If the value is high,
it suggests a problem in the DDF address space.
B.Investigate the CLASS 3 suspension time. As class 3 time includes the time that DB2 spends
sending/receiving network messages, a high value is a possible indication that the network is
experiencing a slow-down.
C.Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 Elapsed time (ET) minus non-nested CLASS 2 ET. If the value is
high, this can only be caused by spending most time in the application, and therefore the application
should be investigated.
D.Check to see if the DB2 remote connection can become inactive at commit (Type 2 inactive). If not, this
leads to a high non-nested CLASS 1 ET and is likely the cause of the performance problem. Inactive
connections will use less CPU than threads that stay active all the time.
Correct:A

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NO.8 A DBA needs to use the DSN command processor to delete DB2 packages that are no longer
needed. Which of the following choices is correct for the DBA to use?
A.SPUFI or QMF with the DROP statement
B.FREE Package (..)
C.DROP Package (..)
D.DROP PLAN () PKLIST (..)
Correct:B

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NO.9 Which parameter in WLM Application Environment controls the # of concurrent stored
procedures that can run in that particular environment?
A.NUMSRB
B.NUMTHR
C.NUMCTK
D.NUMTCB
Correct:D

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NO.10 Which of the following is the correct configuration in a two way DB2 datasharing group?
A.MVSA (DB2A, active log A, workfile A) MVSB (DB2B, active log B, workfile B) Shared BSDS and
catalog and directory Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
B.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active Log B, workfile B)
Shared catalog and directory Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
C.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active
log A, workfile A, catalog & directory B) Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
D.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active
log B, workfile B, catalog & directory B) Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
Correct:B

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NO.11 Which of the following RACF profiles would be used to allow IMS to access DB2 DSN1?
A.DSN1.IMS
B.DSNR.IMS
C.DSN1.MASS
D.DSN1.SASS
Correct:C

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NO.12 Which of the following DSNZPARMs is necessary to influence access path selection for certain
queries?
A.STDSQL
B.OPTHINTS
C.PARTKEYU
D.DESCSTAT
Correct:B

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NO.13 A DBA has been required by a new company policy to implement a new DB2 security method.
The company would like to separate the authorization IDs that can execute plans and packages
from the authorization IDs that can create new plans and packages. Which of the following explicit
system privileges allows the user to create new plans and packages without being able to also
execute them?
A.BINDADD
B.CREATEIN
C.BINDAGENT
D.CREATEDBA
Correct:C

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NO.14 A DBA was examining the Log Statistics, Log Activity section in the OMEGAMON Performance
Expert Tool and noticed a large value in the field UNAVAILABLE OUTPUT LOG BUFF. This is an
important and critical performance metric. What does this performance metric mean?
A.The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too large so memory was not
utilized and wasted.
B.The active logs were not stripped by DFSMS and the active log data sets have to be processed
sequentially so many times.
C.The active log data sets were not placed on different volumes to reduce contention so a large amount of
I/O activity showed up in the OUTPUT BUFFER field.
D.The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too small so application has to
wait while DB2 was busy writing the Active log data sets.
Correct:D

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NO.15 Given the following RUNSTATS utility statement: RUNSTATS TABLESPACE
DB2CERTDB.MYTBLSPC1 TABLE (MYTABLE1) COLUMN(ALL) INDEX REPORT YES UPDATE ALL
HISTORY ALL which of the following statements is true?
A.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of all indexes on table MYTABLE1.
B.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index on table MYTABLE1.
C.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of each index associated with table space
MYTBLSPC1.
D.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index associated with table space
MYTBLSPC1.
Correct:D

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NO.16 Which statement best describes how multi-row fetch improves performance?
A.It reduces the amount of programming required.
B.It reduces the number of SQL statements issued.
C.It reduces the amount of data sent over a network.
D.It reduces the amount of I/O required to read a table.
Correct:B

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NO.17 There are dynamic SQL statements running in a subsystem that need to have their host
variables reoptimized at run-time, however the distribution of the values does not change very
much between execution. What is the most optimal bind parameter for these statements?
A.REOPT(NONE)
B.REOPT(ONCE)
C.REOPT(VARS)
D.REOPT(ALWAYS)
Correct:B

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NO.18 What is the purpose of the following catalog health query? SELECT BNAME, BCREATOR,
BTYPE, DNAME FROM SYSIBM.SYSPLANDEP PD WHERE BTYPE IN ('T', 'V', 'A') AND NOT EXISTS
(SELECT * FROM SYSIBM.SYSTABLES WHERE CREATOR = PD.BCREATOR AND NAME =
PD.BNAME AND TYPE = PD.BTYPE);
A.For every row in SYSTABLES that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should be
a corresponding row in SYSPLANDEP.
B.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should
be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
C.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, view, or a table that
has been altered, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
D.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, a table with a
VARCHAR column, or alias, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
Correct:B

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NO.19 If an object is created statically by a role within a trusted context and the ROLE AS OBJECT
OWNER clause is specified, who becomes the object owner when executing the package?
A.The role
B.The schema name
C.The owner keyword
D.The current SQLID (if set)
Correct:A

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NO.20 A DB2 V9 system that is in New Function Mode:
A.cannot fall back.
B.can fall back to Compatibility Mode.
C.can fall back to New Function Mode*.
D.can fall back to Compatibility Mode*.
Correct:D

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Exam Code: 000-839

Exam Name: IBM (Rational Unified Process v7.0)

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NO.1 In RUP, what does the Software Development Plan contain?
A.Iteration Plan
B.Requirements Management Plan, Master Validation Plan, Quality Test Plan, and Risk Management
Plan
C.Problem Resolution Plan, Product Acceptance Plan, Measurement Plan, Risk Management Plan, and
Quality Assurance Plan
D.Requirements Management Plan, Product Metrics Plan, and Software Test Assurance Plan
Correct:C

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NO.2 The Iteration Plan belongs to _____.
A.the Project Management domain and the Specification work product kind
B.the Assessment domain and the Project Management work product kind
C.the Planning domain and the Project Management work product kind
D.the Project Management domain and the Plan work product kind
Correct:D

IBM exam dumps   000-839   000-839   000-839

NO.3 Which three work products belong in the Project Management discipline? (Choose three.)
A.Risk Management Plan
B.Business Case
C.Test Evaluation Summary Report
D.Project Plan
Correct:A B D

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about iterations? (Choose two.)
A.Working software is always delivered to the customer.
B.An iterations always has a plan and evaluation criteria.
C.An iteration is a mini project with a plan, deliverables and assessment.
D.There are always multiple iterations in each phase.
Correct:B C

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NO.5 Which is part of the evaluation criteria for successful completion of the Elaboration phase?
A.A final set of requirements is agreed upon.
B.All detailed design documents are reviewed.
C.The architecture is stable.
D.Less than 50% of project budget is expended.
Correct:C

IBM exam dumps   000-839   000-839   000-839

NO.6 Which is a fine-grained plan?
A.Software Development Plan
B.Business Case
C.Iteration Plan
D.Risk Management Plan
Correct:C

IBM exam dumps   000-839   000-839   000-839

NO.7 What is the purpose of the Project Plan?
A.to assess the feasibility of the project
B.to establish project staffing
C.to describe the phases and major milestones of the project
D.to provide a sound rationale for project funding
Correct:C

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about an Executable Architecture? (Choose two.)
A.It is a disposable prototype of the application.
B.It is a simulation of the executing system.
C.It is a validation (testable) of the architecture.
D.It is the baseline for the rest of development.
Correct:C D

IBM exam dumps   000-839   000-839   000-839

NO.9 In planning for iterative development, the Project Plan is referred to as a _____.
A.roadmap
B.fine-grained plan
C.detailed plan
D.risk management tool
Correct:A

IBM exam dumps   000-839   000-839   000-839

NO.10 In the Construction phase, what are the two areas of focus of the Iteration Plan? (Choose two.)
A.development efficiency
B.project scoping
C.architectural risks
D.product quality
Correct:A D

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NO.11 What are two functions of a Status Assessment? (Choose two.)
A.manages expectations
B.provides a mechanism for resolving management issues
C.rates the overall project quality
D.resolves risk items
Correct:A B

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NO.12 What are three characteristics of a task? (Choose three.)
A.is work a role performs
B.occurs once in an iteration
C.has granularity of a few hours to a few days
D.usually affects only one or a small number of work products
Correct:A C D

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NO.13 Which two factors determine the duration of an iteration? (Choose two.)
A.the size of the project
B.the priority set by the customer on particular features
C.the requirement for a minimum of six iterations in a project
D.the level of automation used to manage code, distribute information and perform testing
Correct:A D

IBM exam dumps   000-839   000-839   000-839

NO.14 What is a typical breakdown of total project effort across the phases?
A.Inception 20% Elaboration 50% Construction 20% Transition 10%
B.Inception 5%, Elaboration 20%, Construction 45%, Transition 30%
C.Inception 10% Elaboration 10% Construction 70% Transition 10%
D.Inception 5% Elaboration 20% Construction 65% Transition 10%
Correct:D

IBM exam dumps   000-839   000-839   000-839

NO.15 Which two concepts guide iterative development? (Choose two.)
A.early completion of simple features, to show progress to the customer
B.informal plans, allowing features to be moved to future iterations
C.early baselining of architecture, allowing stability in planning, content and organization
D.scope validation by stakeholders, to account for their needs
Correct:C D

IBM exam dumps   000-839   000-839   000-839

NO.16 What are three types of work products? (Choose three.)
A.artifact
B.deliverable
C.milestone
D.outcome
Correct:A B D

IBM exam dumps   000-839   000-839   000-839

NO.17 What relationship(s) can a work product have to a task?
A.input only
B.output only
C.input and output
D.optional input, mandatory input, and output
Correct:D

IBM exam dumps   000-839   000-839   000-839

NO.18 Why does the risk-time profile decline more rapidly for iterative development than waterfall
development? (Choose two.)
A.Iterative development exposes design flaws and enables resolution earlier in the lifecycle.
B.With iterative development, customer satisfaction is maintained by early, incremental deliveries of
capability.
C.In iterative development, the software architecture can be revised in any iteration to support new
features and overcome performance problems.
D.Iterative development allows key, non-functional requirements (i.e. performance, fault tolerance and
maintainability) to be addressed early in development.
Correct:A D

IBM exam dumps   000-839   000-839   000-839

NO.19 Which two model elements can be linked to descriptors? (Choose two.)
A.Phase
B.Task
C.Activity
D.Role
Correct:B D

IBM exam dumps   000-839   000-839   000-839

NO.20 How does an iterative approach help with resource and cost control?
A.It allows the Project Manager to control allocation of resources by phase. Artifacts evolve as required by
each phase and there is increased precision of cost estimates from phase to phase.
B.It allows the Project Manager to make budgetary requests with each iteration. These requests are
based on the expansion of project scope as requested by the customer.
C.It allows iterations to be planned in advance and in detail for all phases. It helps establish costs and a
profile of resource usage can be generated in advance for the entire project.
D.It allows iterations to be de-scoped as required, at the direction of the Project Manager. It allows better
management of costs as features can be moved to later iterations when resources are available.
Correct:A

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Exam Code: 000-255

Exam Name: IBM (Dev.wwIBM Rational appdev-Websphere software v6)

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NO.1 Datasources created in the Application Deployment Descriptor editor can be accessed by:
A.Applications running on the server.
B.Applications in the current workspace.
C.Modules contained in the EAR file where the definition is made.
D.J2EE Application client modules accessing the server.
Correct:C

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NO.2 A standalone Java application creates a log file without specifying a path name. The log file will
be created in:
A.The product installation directory.
B.The bin subdirectory under the product installation directory.
C.The root directory of the project.
D.The package folder in which the main Java class is located.
Correct:C

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NO.3 What should be done to prevent the Server Selection dialog box from activating when a
developer runs an Enterprise Application from its context menu?
A.Select the "Set server as project default" option from the Server Selection wizard.
B.Select the "Do not prompt" option in the Servers view.
C.Create a new server and select the "Set server as workspace default" option in the Server Creation
wizard.
D.Add the project to the server from the server's context menu.
Correct:A

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NO.4 An Enterprise Application project contains multiple Dynamic Web projects. All of the Web
projects use a set of common classes defined in a Java project. The common classes are still
under development and are changing daily. What is the BEST way to make the common classes
available to the Web projects at runtime?
A.Add the Java project as a Web Library Project in each of the WARs.
B.Add the Java project as a Project Utility JAR in the EAR and create a Java JAR Dependency in each of
the Dynamic Web projects.
C.Export the Java project as a JAR file and import it into the WebContent/WEB-INF/lib folder of each of
the Dynamic Web projects.
D.Export the classes of the Java project and import the individual class files into the
WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder of each of the Dynamic Web projects.
Correct:B

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NO.5 When a developer creates a servlet using the Servlet wizard, what is the purpose of the servlet
name?
A.It is required to be used as the servlet class name.
B.It is used in the default URL mapping.
C.It is used to create an interface to the servlet.
D.It is used for filter mapping.
Correct:B

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NO.6 A developer has imported a new EAR file into a workspace. What is the result of selecting the
Enterprise Application and choosing Run -> Run on Server from its context menu?
A.The Server Selection dialog box is activated.
B.The "Add and remove projects" dialog is activated.
C.The Server Creation wizard is activated.
D.The Enterprise Application runs on the workspace default server.
Correct:A

IBM test answers   000-255 demo   000-255 demo   000-255

NO.7 What steps MUST be performed to add a Web project to a server?
A.Right-click on the Web project and select Add to Server Configuration. Select the desired server.
B.Right-click on an Enterprise Application project that contains the Web application and select Add to
Server Configuration. Select the desired server.
C.Right-click on the server in the Servers view and select Add and remove projects. Select the Web
project from the Available projects list and click Add.
D.Right-click on the server in the Servers view and select Add and remove projects. Select an Enterprise
Application project that contains the Web application from the Available projects list and click Add.
Correct:D

IBM test answers   000-255 demo   000-255 demo   000-255

NO.8 Which of the following is NOT supported by Page Designer?
A.ASP
B.HTML
C.JSP
D.JavaScript
Correct:A

IBM test answers   000-255 demo   000-255 demo   000-255

NO.9 A developer has a partially complete Web application at the C:\root\webApplication directory. In
order to continue development in Rational Application Developer, what could the developer do?
A.Open a new workspace at C:\root\webApplication.
B.Open a new workspace at C:\root, and create a new Web project called webApplication.
C.From any workspace, create a new Web project, setting the context root to C:\root\webApplication.
D.From any workspace, create a new Web project, and selectively import the files from
C:\root\webApplication.
Correct:D

IBM test answers   000-255 demo   000-255 demo   000-255

NO.10 A developer customizes the Java perspective and wants to save the changes as the default
perspective that is opened in the workspace. Which of the following actions would be BEST for
the developer to perform?
A.Choose Window -> Save Perspective As and name the new perspective MyJava; Choose Window ->
Preferences -> Workbench -> Perspectives, select MyJava and click Make Default.
B.Choose Window -> Save Perspective; Choose Window -> Preferences -> Workbench -> Perspectives,
select Java and click Make Default.
C.Choose Window -> Preferences -> Workbench -> Perspectives, select Java and click Make Default.
D.Choose Window -> Perspective -> Save Current As Default.
Correct:A

IBM test answers   000-255 demo   000-255 demo   000-255

NO.11 Which TWO of the following views allow a developer to see Struts resources organized by their
Struts-specific types?
A.Project Explorer
B.Java Browsing
C.Struts Gallery
D.Struts Explorer
E.Modules
Correct:A D

IBM test answers   000-255 demo   000-255 demo   000-255

NO.12 In which TWO of the following locations can the context root of a Dynamic Web project be
changed?
A.The Modules page of the Application Deployment Descriptor editor
B.The XML source of the application.xml file
C.From the J2EE dialog of the Properties of the Dynamic Web project
D.The source of the web.xml file
Correct:B C

IBM test answers   000-255 demo   000-255 demo   000-255

NO.13 A developer wishes to create a project that contains a mix of HTML files, JSP files, servlets, and
Java classes. Which option should the developer choose in the New Project wizard?
A.Dynamic Web Project
B.Static Web Project
C.Java Project
D.Server Project
Correct:A

IBM test answers   000-255 demo   000-255 demo   000-255

NO.14 A company is designing a Web application. Which TWO of the following technologies provide a
model-view-controller framework?
A.Struts
B.Servlet
C.JSTL
D.JSF
E.SDO
Correct:A D

IBM test answers   000-255 demo   000-255 demo   000-255

NO.15 Which TWO of the following can be configured from the Servlets page of the Web Deployment
Descriptor?
A.Filters
B.URL Mappings
C.Initialization parameters
D.Invoker Attributes
Correct:B C

IBM test answers   000-255 demo   000-255 demo   000-255

NO.16 Which of the following operations CANNOT be performed via the Insert Custom Tag dialog
when editing a JSP in Page Designer?
A.Import a tag library into the Web project.
B.Add a taglib descriptor to the JSP.
C.Add a tag to the JSP.
D.Add a custom JSP tag to the JSP.
Correct:C

IBM test answers   000-255 demo   000-255 demo   000-255

NO.17 What can a developer do to allow quick access to a particular Help page?
A.In the main menu, click Help -> Bookmark to bring up a list of Help topics, browse to the desired page,
and click Add.
B.In the main menu, click Favorites -> Manage Favorites, and select the desired page from the list of Help
topics.
C.In the Help window, browse to the desired page, and click the Bookmark Document icon in the toolbar.
D.In the Help window, browse to the desired page, and click Favorites -> Add to Favorites from the menu.
Correct:C

IBM test answers   000-255 demo   000-255 demo   000-255

NO.18 Which of the following BEST describes perspectives within Rational Application Developer?
A.A perspective is a collection of views that facilitate a particular development role.
B.A perspective can be customized with different editors, depending on the needs of the developer.
C.Perspectives can contain other perspectives.
D.Perspectives are opened as a result of launching external applications.
Correct:A

IBM test answers   000-255 demo   000-255 demo   000-255

NO.19 A developer is creating a Struts enabled application using the Web Diagram editor. The
resources in the editor that are gray and do not have bold label text are:
A.Private.
B.External.
C.Unrealized.
D.Interfaces.
Correct:C

IBM test answers   000-255 demo   000-255 demo   000-255

NO.20 A developer wants to import a zip file into a project without expanding the contents of the file.
The Developer should use which of the following File -> Import features?
A.File System
B.Zip file
C.Resource file
D.J2EE Jar file
Correct:A

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Exam Code: 000-735

Exam Name: IBM (DB2 9.5 SQL Procedure Developer)

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NO.1 What are two valid DECLARE statements in an SQL procedure? (Choose two.)
A. DECLARE var1 INTEGER;
B. DECLARE var1 DECIMAL [9];
C. DECLARE var1 XML;
D. DECLARE var1 CURRENT DATE;
E. DECLARE var1[10] INTEGER;
Answer: AC

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NO.2 Which statement can be used to define an array of 30 names that have a maximum size of 25
characters each?
A. CREATE TYPE names AS VARCHAR(25) ARRAY[30];
B. CREATE ARRAY names[30] VARCHAR(25);
C. CREATE TYPE names[30] VARCHAR(25);
D. CREATE ARRAY names AS VARCHAR(25);
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which CREATE PROCEDURE statement option should be used if you plan on issuing a DECLARE
GLOBALTEMPORARY TABLE statement from within the SQL procedure body?
A. CONTAINS SQL
B. READS SQL DATA
C. MODIFIES SQL DATA
D. LANGUAGE SQL
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement should be used to declare an array with at most 10 elements of type INTEGER?
A. DECLARE sub_total INTEGER[10];
B. DECLARE sub_total[10] INTEGER;
C. CREATE TYPE sub_total AS INTEGER[10];
D. CREATE TYPE sub_total[10] AS INTEGER;
Answer: C

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NO.5 Given the SQL statement shown below:DECLARE test CURSOR FOR SELECT hiredate FROM
employee FOR UPDATE; Which statement correctly describes the cursor that is created?
A. The cursor will be considered a read-only cursor.
B. The cursor can only be used to perform positioned updates.
C. The cursor can only be used to perform positioned deletes.
D. The cursor can be used to perform positioned updates and deletes.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Given the statement shown below:SELECT ROW CHANGE TOKEN FOR dept, RID_BIT (dept) FROM
dept WHERE deptno = 'A00' WITH URWhich two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The statement is selecting two columns from DEPT table.
B. The statement will allow the latest ROW CHANGE TOKEN value to be returned.
C. The statement will allow the earliest ROW CHANGE TOKEN value to be returned.
D. The statement will return a TIMESTAMP value.
E. The statement uses optimistic locking.
Answer: BE

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NO.7 Given the statements shown below: DECLARE c_dept CURSOR WITH HOLD FOR SELECT * FROM
dept; OPEN c_dept;Which two conditions are true? (Choose two.)
A. C_DEPT will remain open after a ROLLBACK.
B. C_DEPT will remain open after a COMMIT.
C. C_DEPT will be returned to the caller of the routine.
D. C_DEPT will be positioned before the next logical row.
E. All locks held by C_DEPT will be released after a COMMIT.
Answer: BD

IBM   000-735   000-735

NO.8 hich statement can be used to declare a variable inside an SQL procedure that can be used to
represent a monetary value?
A. DECLARE v_money MONEY;
B. DECLARE v_money DOUBLE;
C. DECLARE v_money DECIMAL(9,2);
D. DECLARE v_money CURRENCY;
Answer: C

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NO.9 hich steps must be followed to return a result set from an SQL procedure?
A. 1. Create the procedure using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
2.Declare the cursor.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4.Close the cursor.
5.Return to the application.
B. 1. Create the procedure using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
2.Declare the cursor using the WITH RETURN clause.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4.Return to the application.
C. 1. Create the procedure using the WITH RETURN clause.
2.Declare the cursor using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4.Return to the application.
D. 1. Create the procedure using the WITH RETURN clause.
2.Declare the cursor using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4. Close the cursor.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What will be the initial value of V_MAX in the declaration statement shown below?DECLARE v_max
DECIMAL(9,2);
A. 0.0
B. 2
C. 9
D. NULL
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-139

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Specialist - IBM Rational AppScan, Standard Ed)

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NO.1 How does an attacker exploit Web application vulnerabilities?
A. by hacking the firewall
B. by installing viruses on a users machine
C. by sending malicious HTTP requests
D. by sniffing the traffic between a user and the Web server
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which type of vulnerability allows an attacker to browse files that shouldnt be accessible (e.g. *.bak,
"Copy of", *.inc, etc.) or pages restricted for users with higher privileges?
A. Insecure Cryptographic Storage
B. Injection Flaw
C. Failure to Restrict URL Access
D. Insecure Communication
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does a Cross-site Scripting vulnerability allow an attacker to do?
A. execute a malicious script on the Web server
B. change the Web server configuration
C. steal a users session tokens
D. drop database tables
Answer: C

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NO.4 After 30 minutes your scan stops with an out-of-session error.
What is a possible cause of this error?
A. Redundant path limit was too low.
B. A parameter was not tracked.
C. Flash parsing was turned off.
D. Platform authentication was not configured.
Answer: B

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NO.5 In which three areas does AppScan test for vulnerabilities?
A. the network layer, the web application, the web server
B. the operating system, the web application platform, the database
C. the web application, the web server, the web application platform
D. the web application platform, the network layer, the web server
Answer: C

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Exam Code: COG-310

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos TM1 Developer)

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NO.1 When an application developer constructs a cube, what is the minimum number of dimensions the cube
must contain?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.2 Data is loaded into cells in a cube. A cell is identified by the intersection of items from which of the
following objects?
A. Attribute
B. Subset
C. Dimension
D. Slice
Answer: C

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NO.3 An application developer needs to know the last time the Sales Forecast cube was updated. The cube
file, including the date and time stamp, can be found in which of the following locations?
A. In the data directory.
B. In the data file.
C. On the web server.
D. On the admin server.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Aggregation is automatically applied when building a dimension. Which of the following option is the
basis for aggregation?
A. Formats
B. Rules
C. Attributes
D. Hierarchies
Answer: D

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NO.5 When users cannot access a TM1 application, the application developer should ensure the host
process is correct. Which of the following is the host process?
A. TM1 data server
B. TM1 admin server
C. TM1 web server
D. TM1 local server
Answer: B

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Exam Code: LOT-956

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 System Administration Update.)

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NO.1 Users are able to change settings for their own devices in Lotus Traveler; however, the synchronization
default settings for all users comes from which of the following files?
A.NTSConfig.xml
B.iltraveler.config
C.travsyncconfig.xml
D.traveler.properties
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following notes.ini variables must be in place to enable the Domino Attachment and Object
Service on your Domino server?
A.ServerTasks=DAOS
B.AttachmentService=2
C.Create_R85_Databases=1
D.DAOS_Enabled_On_Server=1
Answer: C

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NO.3 Domino 8.5 includes both Domino server roaming and file server roaming as an option in this release
for end users. You wish to upgrade one group of users to Domino roaming and another group to file server
roaming.How would you do this?
A.Domino server roaming and file server roaming can only be performed from a policy and not from the
Admin client.
B.Domino server roaming and file server roaming can only be performed from the Admin client, and not a
policy.
C.Domino server roaming is performed from the Admin client, and file server roaming is performed from a
policy.
D.Domino server roaming is performed from a policy, and file server roaming is performed from the Admin
client.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Terry is working on a document in a database on a server that is DAOS- enabled.While in the document,
Terry replaces the attachment with a new version.Which of the following occurs to the attachment in the
DAOS store?
A.The server adjusts references to the attachment in DAOS
B.The server removes the reference from all mail files that pointed to that original file reference
C.The server removes the previous attachment entirely from DAOS and inserts the link to the new
attachment
D.The server uploads the full previous attachment to all user mail files that pointed to that original file
reference
Answer: A

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NO.5 James is the administrator of ABC company and wants to deploy ID vault.In which order should he
perform the steps i.use policies to assign user IDs to the vault ii.create the vault database on a server,
iii.specify which user organizations trust the vault and assign password reset authority, iv.create the vault
ID file and specify at least one vault administrator,
A.ii, iv, iii, i
B.iii, ii, iv, i
C.ii, iii, iv, i
D.Steps not complete
Answer: A

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NO.6 Creating an ID vault on your Domino server requires: Administrator access to the server on which you
create it Editor access to the Domino Directory and which of the following?
A.Create databases and templates access
B.Membership in the ID Vault Admins group
C.The ID Vault Admin role in the Domino Directory
D.Specifying multiple Domino servers to host the ID Vault database
Answer: A

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NO.7 Each of the following is true about the ID vault EXCEPT;
A.Smartcard-enabled IDs cannot be stored in a vault.
B.You can not use the CA process when registering users into the vault.
C.Performing certificate authority key rollover on certifier IDs is not supported.
D.You cannot use the CA process when creating cross-certificates that are needed to establish vault trust
and password reset
Answer: B

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NO.8 Domino Attachment and Object Service is supported on each of the following, EXCEPT?
A.Mail.box databases
B.DB2 enabled databases
C.Non-mail file databases
D.Domino servers hosted on an operating system in a virtual environment
Answer: B

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NO.9 You want to enable early authentication for all new users after Lotus Notes 8.5 Standard has been
installed.What steps are needed to achieve this:
A.It is enabled by default.
B.Set the parameter EARLY_AUTHENTICATION_ENABLED=1 in the users' notes.ini.
C.Set the option in the security settings document in a policy that will be applied to the end user.
D.Change the target in the Lotus Notes shortcut on the users' desktops to point to nlnotes.exe instead of
notes.exe.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Your development team has modified the client download site for Lotus Traveler.All of the changes,
though, are not being seen as the server is still pointing to the old directory and files.You have
successfully modified the Home URL in the Internet Site Document.Which of the following must also be
modified?
A.The servlet utilized by the Domino Web server
B.The NTS_WEBSITE_HOME parameter in the notes.ini file
C.Disable Internet Site documents in the Domino server
D.Make TCP port 8642 available to all users to see the new site documents
Answer: B

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NO.11 In databases that use DAOS, Domino performs which of the following with every document with an
attachment?
A.Domino saves a separate and complete copy
B.Domino saves a reference to each attached file
C.Domino creates a field in the document called $DAOSnopurge
D.Domino copies the attachment to a central repository and leaves a copy attached to the document
E.Domino splits the attachment into smaller sections and compresses each section and file reference
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which version of Domino is the earliest version of Domino that DCT (Domino Configuration Tuner) can
be run on to evaluate settings?
A.Domino 7.0.0
B.Domino 8.0.0
C.Domino 8.5.0
D.Domino 6.5.0
Answer: A

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NO.13 After enabling DAOS for a mail database on your server, which of the following compact tasks must be
run on the database to complete the initialization for DAOS on that database?
A.In-place
B.Copy-style
C.Revert database
D.Discard view indexes
Answer: B

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NO.14 While creating the ID vault, you must configure the organizations that trust the vault for ID
storage.Which of the following does this create?
A.An AdminP request is created
B.ID vault administrator accounts
C.Vault trust certificates in the Domino Directory
D.Certifier ID files of the organizations or organizational units with vault trust certificates
Answer: C

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NO.15 Your Domino server has been configured for DAOS, and all mailfiles have also been enabled
successfully.In which of the following times will consolidation occur when a user saves an attachment that
meets the defined DAOS size settings?
A.Immediately
B.The next time the DAOS service runs
C.After the user closes the current Notes session
D.By the schedule defined in the server configuration document
Answer: A

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