2013年6月3日星期一

Latest Cisco 650-128 of exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: 650-128
Exam Name: Cisco (Authorized Connected Grid Account Manager Knowledge Verification )

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NO.1 How many levels or types of priority can be assigned on a Cisco TAC case.?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of these trends is the main driver toward smart grid technology?
A. increased supply, which requires the integration of distributed generation sources
B. reduced demand, which causes an increase in demand and peak load
C. compliance with regulations involving government funding and rules
D. increased carbon footprint
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement reflects the overall Cisco Smart Grid vision?
A. Sell the existing Cisco IP-based products from end-to-end of our utility customer's smart grid
deployments.
B. Design and architect an end-to-end communications infrastructure that is integrated with the power
grid.
C. Integrate intelligent routing protocols into existing electrical grids.
D. Create a single infrastructure for unified communications from electrical generation plants to all primary
and secondary substations.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 351-050
Exam Name: Cisco (CCIE Wireless Beta Written Exam)

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NO.1 You work as a network technician at Company.com, read this subject carefully ,then answer the
question. The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code for both the controllers and
the Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report
discovered APs to the Cisco WCS. What default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm
Summary?
A. Major
B. Critical
C. Flash
D. Minor
Answer: D

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NO.2 The central office is currently using a combination of 4400 and 2100 series WLAN controllers running
v4.2 and a variety of LWAPP-enabled access points servicing both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The WLAN
deployment has been extended to each remote office by implementing a 526 WLAN controller running
v4.1 and several 521 access points. Wireless client deployment uses EAP-TLS authentication by use of a
centralized RADIUS server plus 802.11n for performance. After the first remote office deployment, remote
office users complain that they are not connecting via 802.11n. Which will most likely cause this problem?
A. The 521 AP does not support 5 GHz, which prohibits 802.11n.
B. The 521 AP and 526 WLAN controllers do not support AES, which prohibits 802.11n.
C. The 526 WLAN controller does not support external authentication via RADIUS,
prohibitingauthentication.
D. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with either v4.1 or v4.2.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How do the characteristics that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of
the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
B. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to750
wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LANcontrollers.
C. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS forLinux does
not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Do you know at what distance the curve of the earth factors into the antenna elevation calculation?
A. Greater than 6 miles (~10 km)
B. 60% of the Fresnel zone
C. Greater than 26 miles (~42 km)
D. The width of the Fresnel zone, which varies depending on the distance by which the bridgesare
separated
Answer: A

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NO.5 Refer to the following options, which two are long-term solutions to hidden node problems? (Choose
two.)
A. Enable CTS to Self
B. Change the RF situation by increasing the power on client work stations (None-AP-STA)
C. Increase the radio speed to at least 24 Mb/s
D. Change the RF situation by adding additional access points
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a
local subnet, which action will AP take next?
A. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known.
B. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational.
C. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet.
D. Determine whether the controller responses are the primary controller.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Tom works as a network administrator for a company. He is asked to manually configure the Tx power
on an 802.11b access point to a power level of 1 (100 mW) after implementing a Cisco 7921G wireless IP
phone within a Cisco Unified Wireless Network. Which problem is the user likely to experience when the
phone associates to the AP?
A. One-way audio
B. Loss of connectivity to Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Audio delay or jitter or both
D. The phone displays a "network busy" status message
Answer: A

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NO.8 For the following commands, which one can determine the health of a RADIUS server on an
autonomous AP?
A. show radius statistics
B. debug radius-server
C. show radius table {server_ip}
D. show radius-server {server_ip}
Answer: A

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NO.9 Observe the following statements, which limitation applies to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution
Management over Wireless feature?
A. Read-write access is not available; only read-only access is supported.
B. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS), notnonsecure
protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet).
C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed.
D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP towhich the
client is associated.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two actions will happen when a wireless client deploys a Layer 2 roam between two WLCs with
management IP addresses on different IP subnets but dynamic interfaces in the same VLAN? (Choose
two.)
A. The new WLC exchanges mobility messages with the original WLC and the client databaseentry is
moved to the new WLC.
B. The client database entry is maintained on both the original and new WLCs.
C. The original WLC marks the client with an "Anchor" entry in its own client database.
D. The client database entry is removed from the original WLC once it has been entered into thenew
WLC.
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 It is suggested that you prime or stage your lightweight access points in a convenient location, rather
that after they have been installed in locations that may be difficult to reach. Which three items can be
configured by using the controller CLI, controller GUI, or Cisco WCS while priming a lightweight AP prior
to deployment? (Choose three.)
A. To configure the lightweight access point with primary, secondary, and tertiary controllernames
B. To configure the Controller Mobility Group name, if the lightweight access point is in aController
Mobility Group
C. To configure the access-point-specific LED blink sequence
D. To configure the access-point-specific 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g network settings
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.12 In order to be able to communicate with the WDS master, what must be configured on the APs while
setting up a WLAN for Wireless Domain Services?
A. Username and password valid on the AAA server
B. Multicast group for the WDS
C. Ip address of the master WDS and any backup master WDS
D. Pre-shared key which matches that of the master WDS
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the reason that using a tool like Cisco Spectrum Expert is important?
A. It maps the RF area to a floor plan.
B. It allows you to detect multipath.
C. It allows you to see the radiating environment at Layer 1.
D. It decodes WLAN IPS attacks
Answer: C

Cisco   351-050   351-050

NO.14 Lightweight Access Point Protocol or LWAPP is the name of a protocol that can control multiple Wi-Fi
wireless access points at once. How does the Cisco WCS know what has happened in an LWAPP system
when an AP's interface goes down and then comes up again?
A. The Cisco WCS polls the APs and when the AP is unreachable, reports "Max retransmissionsreached
on AP <name>".
B. The AP sends a linkDown then linkUp trap to the Cisco WCS; these are two of the six trapsdefined in
RFC 1215, A Convention for Defining Traps for use with the SNMP.
C. The AP cannot send a linkDown trap, as per RFC 1215, because the link is down; when thelink comes
back up, the AP sends a linkup trap to the Cisco WLC, which then forwards thetrap to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC sends a trap to the Cisco WCS when it detects that an AP is down.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Can you tell me what the LWAPP data and control port numbers are?
A. TCP 16666 and 16667
B. UDP 16666 and 16667
C. TCP 12124 and 12134
D. UDP 12222 and 12223
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two options are correct according to debug output presented in the following exhibit? (Choose
two.)
A. The wireless client uses a static IP address, so "0.0.0.0 START (0)" can be found in the logs.
B. The wireless client has been successfully authenticated. Reauthentication is set to occur on
anextremely aggressive schedule (every five seconds).
C. The wireless client "hangs" in probes (does not proceed with 802.11 authentication andassociation). It
is likely that the "encryption" or "key-management" advertised in the proberesponse does not match.
D. Since the AP receives a probe request from the wireless client, the Access Point Functionsstate for the
machine changes from "Idle" to "Probe."
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 802.11i is a forthcoming specification that will clear up a number of security problems in 802.11. For
the following items, which 802.11i key can provide data origin authenticity during the four-way handshake
and the group key handshake messages?
A. Key Caching Key
B. Key Encryption Key
C. Groupwise Master Key
D. Key Confirmation Key
Answer: D

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NO.18 Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers. For the
following options ,which two MFP requirements protect the network?
(Choose two.)
A. Requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID
B. Requires CCXv5
C. Implements the validation of wireless management frames
D. Forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 A user complains about problems authenticating via wireless. Which two of the Cisco WLC debug
commands below would solve this problem? (Choose two.)
A. debug mac { addr MAC}
B. debug client authentication enable
C. debug dot1x events enable
D. debug client events enable
Answer: A,C

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NO.20 You are a network technician . According to the following exhibit, a client configured for LEAP
authentication, a RADIUS server configured for LEAP, and an autonomous AP configured as displayed. If
authentication fails for the client, which is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The client supplicant: This client is providing the wrong EAP-ID in its EAP Identity response.
B. The RADIUS server timeout: This timeout is too short; the access point will wait for theRADIUS server,
then the timer will expire and authentication will fail.
C. The RADIUS server at 192.168.1.22: There is either a RADIUS key mismatch or usercredentials are
not matching on the RADIUS Server.
D. The AP: The AP is misconfigured, because the authentication is set to use the local databaseon the
AP.
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which three options are true when an H-REAP AP is in the "authentication down/local switching" state
for a given WLAN? (Choose three.)
A. New WebAuth sessions are permitted.
B. The AP continues to send beacon probes and responses to keep current clients connected.
C. 802.11 roaming events incur a full 802.1X re-authentication.
D. Any new clients trying to authenticate are rejected.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.22 The following message can be seen on a Cisco WCS:
AP 'floor-1-lobby', interface '802.11b/g' on Controller '10.1.1.1'. Noise threshold violated.
There is also a correlation between the occurrence of the message and user complaints. Which action
should you take?
A. Check the logs for rogues in the area, then turn on rogue mitigation.
B. Seek out the source of the noise with a spectrum analyzer.
C. Manually increase the power of the AP to overcome the interference.
D. Increase the interference threshold from the default 10%.
Answer: B

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NO.23 How to describe the radiation pattern of patch and Yagi antennas when viewed from the side (Hplane)?
A. The patch patterns are egg-shaped, the Yagi patterns are conical
B. The patch patterns are doughnut-shaped, the Yagi patterns are conical
C. The patch patterns are conical, the Yagi patterns are doughnut-shaped
D. The patch patterns are conical, the Yagi patterns are egg-shaped
Answer: A

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NO.24 You work as a network engineer .If the WLAN interfaces configured on the different controllers are on
different IP subnets (Layer 3 inter-controller roaming), can you telle me what will happen when a client
roams from one controller (controller A) to a new controller (controller B)?
A. Controller A will mark the client's entry in its client database as an anchor, controller B will notupdate its
client database because of the anchored entry in controller A, and all ingress andegress traffic will flow
through controller A.
B. Controller A will mark the client with an anchor entry in its client database, the database, andthe
database entry will be copied to controller B and marked with a foreign entry.
C. Controller A will mark the client's entry in its client database as foreign, controller B will updateits client
database, all ingress traffic will flow through controller A, and egress traffic will flowthrough controller B
when symmetric tunneling is disabled.
D. Controller B will update its client database and all client ingress and egress traffic will transitionto the
new controller.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which is the objective of a radome?
A. To reduce the mechanical load from wind
B. To indicate which way the antenna is pointing
C. To increase the gain of an antenna
D. To mitigate interference
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which description concerning wireless voice traffic is correct?
A. Voice traffic is more latency-sensitive.
B. Wireless voice traffic must be on a dedicated channel apart from wireless data.
C. Wireless voice devices cannot share APs with wireless data NIC cards.
D. 1Mb/s and 2Mb/s data rates are required for the phones, but not for the wireless data traffic.
Answer: A

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NO.27 Observe the following options carefully, which functionality, as defined by IEEE 802.11e, does WWM
certify as part of the tests for QoS done by the WiFi Alliance?
A. EDCA
B. HCCA
C. Direct Link Setup
D. S-APSD
Answer: A

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NO.28 Study the following situations carefully, then answer my question. Wireless client (CB21) configured for
SSID "CCIE-2"; IP address "dhcp". Configure standalone authonomous AP with three SSIDs and three
data VLANs plus the native VLAN. AAA server IP ranges:
VLAN-2:10.20.1.1.100-10.20.1.128 VLAN-3:10.30.1.1.100-10.30.1.128
VLAN-4:10.40.1.1.100-10.40.1.128
The user wants to get an IP address from VLAN-2 which is mapped to the SSID CCIE-2 the client is
associating. Why does this wireless client get a wrong IP address?
A. LEAP authentication fails due to wrong password or unknown username, therefore thewirelessclient is
mapped to the default VLAN.
B. The RADIUS server is not reachable from the AP, therefore the wireless client is mapped tothe default
VLAN.
C. LEAP needs "network-eap" <eap_methods> on the SSID. You must not configure "open
eap"<eap_methods.>
D. The RADIUS server assigned VLAN-4 during authentication/authorization process.
Answer: D

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NO.29 A VoWLAN user reports bad voice quality. Which three items most likely cause this problem? (Choose
three.)
A. Round trip delay is greater than 150 ms
B. Packet loss is greater than 1%
C. Jitter is greater than 30 ms
D. One-way delay is greater than 150 ms
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.30 Which two statements correctly describe RTS/CTS? (Choose two.)
A. When the transmitted packet is equal to or larger than the RTS threshold, an RTS packet issent. The
destination node must respond with a CTS packet before the originator can send thereal data packet.
B. Since the introduction of EDCA (WMM and 802.11e), the RTS/CTS sequence has beenrendered
unnecessary.
C. 802.11d replaced the RTS/CTS sequence with CTS to Self.
D. The RTS and CTS are small and, if lost in a collision, they can be retried more quickly and withless
overhead than if the whole packet must be retried.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: 642-263
Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing the Cisco Unity Connection)

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NO.1 Which protocol is used to exchange information between VPIM networked voice-mail systems?
A. SCCP
B. SIP
C. SNMP
D. SMTP
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which are the minimum system requirements to install Cisco Unity Connection on a virtual machine.?
A. 1-vCPU, 1-GB vRAM, 80-GB vDisk
B. 2-vCPU, 2-GB vRAM, 160-GB vDisk
C. 4-vCPU, 2-GB vRAM, 2X146-GB vDisk
Answer: B

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NO.3 How many phones and mailboxes can be supported with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Business Edition?
A. 225 phones, 250 mailboxes
B. 500 phones, 500 mailboxes
C. 700 phones, 750 mailboxes
D. 1250 phones, 1000 mailboxes
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which choice most accurately describes the licensing components for Cisco Unity Connection?
A. Users with mailboxes, users with IMAP access to voice message, SpeechView users
B. Port licensing for phone system integration, Unified Messaging
C. End-user licensing based on the number of users for voice mail, IMAP access to voice mail, voice
recognition, Cisco Unity Inbox, LDAP, and email TTS
D. Port licensing and VPIM licensing
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which database engine is used in Cisco Unity Connection?
A. PostgreSQL
B. MySQL
C. Informix
D. SQL Server
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 642-993
Exam Name: Cisco (Data Center Unified Computing Systems Design (DCUCD))

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NO.1 What is the purpose of a VSAN in a Cisco Data Center network?
A. to share the zoning across other configured VSANs
B. to provide distributed service within the SAN fabric
C. to advertise the existence of LUNs across the storage area management fabric
D. to facilitate logical end-to-end separation within a single physical storage infrastructure
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which condition is prevented by the use of the "Combined" power redundancy mode in the Nexus
7000?
A. one PSU failure
B. lack of redundancy
C. one input circuit failure
D. one PSU or one input circuit failure
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two physical security concerns would most likely be considered first when planning a data center
installation? (Choose two.)
A. ventilation
B. alarm systems
C. raised flooring
D. fire suppression systems
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which three components are included in Cisco Business Advantage Data Center Architecture?
(Choose three.)
A. unified I/O
B. virtualization
C. Security Manager
D. consolidation
E. Desktop Consolidator
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the L1 and L2 ports on the Cisco UCS 6100 and 6200 Series Fabric Interconnect
switches when running in a cluster with another fabric interconnect?
A. support LACP
B. provide high-availability services
C. used for out-of-band management
D. centralized management port
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which three business pressures are most typically faced by data centers? (Choose three.)
A. language barriers
B. government regulation and compliance
C. SLA metrics
D. global availability
E. technology silos
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 Which statement is true regarding UCS ports dedicated as external LAN device uplinks?
A. Ports carry VLAN traffic only
B. Ports are configured as ISL trunks
C. Spanning tree must be enabled on these ports
D. Ports are configured as access ports
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following would be considered a Cisco Unified Computing technical design criteria?
A. Increase the number of servers in the data center.
B. Decrease security requirements.
C. Simplify the Data Center architecture.
D. Reduce power costs while maintaining or increasing compute capacity.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which is a characteristic of the end-host-mode?
A. It offers no redundancy.
B. It participates in STP.
C. It participates in network control data plan.
D. UCS appears to the external LAN as an end station with many adapters.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the primary purpose of NPIV?
A. It is a switch-based solution with a reduction in overhead.
B. Virtual server interfaces can be created within an Cisco MDS switch.
C. Virtual machines can bypass the hypervisor and access a LUN directly.
D. Multiple virtual applications can share a single switch port while maintaining their identity.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 650-256
Exam Name: Cisco (SBF for Account Managers)

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NO.1 With the appropriate WAN access connectivity services, which Cisco ISR G2 router series can support
100 concurrent rich media collaboration sessions?
A. Cisco 2911
B. Cisco 2921
C. Cisco 2951
D. Cisco 3925
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which three questions might an Account Manager use to start a conversation about network security
risks to a small business customer? (Choose three.)
A. Have you ever had a problem with employee theft of product?
B. Have you had a security problem or been compromised in the past?
C. Have physical security measures been put in place on your premises?
D. How are you currently protecting against viruses malware and web threats?
E. How concerned are you about e-commerce fraud and web security certificates?
F. How do you ensure that all PCs and servers are continuously protected?
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.3 Which term best describes the Cisco OnPlus offering?
A. architecture-based
B. cloud-based
C. resource-based
D. server-based
Answer: B

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NO.4 True stacking means that you can configure, troubleshoot, and manage a group of switches as a single
entity. Which Cisco switches ate stackable up to 8 units or 192 ports.?
A. Cisco 300 Series
B. Cisco Catalysts 2960-S
C. Series Cisco SFE/SGE Switches
D. Cisco Catalyst 3560 Series
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two key purchase decision factors are most important to a target customer considering the Cisco
Unified Communications 300 Series? (Choose two.)
A. bandwidth
B. cost
C. customization
D. scalability
E. service
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 Where is the Cisco OnPlus Network Agent appliance installed?
A. Cisco-hosted data center
B. customer premises
C. partner location
D. third-party data center
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which Cisco Integrated Services Routers are fixed-configuration platforms?
A. Cisco 800 ISR Series
B. Cisco 1900 ISR Series
C. Cisco 2900 ISR Series
D. Cisco 3900 ISR Series
Answer: A

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NO.8 If a business has a subscription to the WebEx Meeting Center small business offering what is the
maximum number of participants a host can invite to a WebEx meeting?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 25
D. 50
Answer: C

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NO.9 Where can a partner who subscribes to the Cisco OnPlus Service find enablement roadmaps and tips
for monetizing the Cisco OnPlus Service?
A. Cisco OnPlus Community
B. Cisco OnPlus Service Portal
C. Cisco OnPlus Service ROI Tool
D. Cisco OnPlus Service Practice Development
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are the three main pillars of the Cisco One Product Portfolio for small business customers?
A. collaborate, simplify, virtualize
B. communicate, share, unify
C. connect, secure, communicate
D. converge, connect secure
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 646-206
Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco Sales Expert)

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NO.1 Which three customer needs are addressed by Cisco solutions? (Choose three.)
A. reducing day one costs
B. improving productivity
C. gaining competitive advantage
D. focusing on current needs
E. obtaining a wide variety of point products
F. reducing TCO
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.2 You discover that a financial institution is planning to acquire two banks and wants to scale its
infrastructure independent of the size of the acquired entities and deliver next-generation functionality
almost immediately. Which three options are the most appropriate questions to ask a business decision
maker? (Choose three.)
A. What are your plans for expanding services and offerings to your customers and your staff?
B. What issues are you experiencing related to technical readiness, implementation, monitoring, and
optimization?
C. How are growing costs affecting the flexibility of your company and its profit margin?
D. How quickly can your IT staff roll out new applications?
E. What do you see as the greatest risks to your business?
F. What technical issues concern you the most?
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 Suppose that a Cisco Partner wants to achieve Cisco Gold Certified status with a Borderless Network
Architecture Specialization. Which two things must be done? (Choose two.)
A. Company must have a Cisco.com ID.
B. Company must send an email to the Cisco Partner team for automatic approval.
C. Company must complete a Specialization application, located on the Partner Central web page.
D. Nothing is required, because the company is a registered Cisco Partner.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which three Cisco go-to-market strategies help partner profitability? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco innovation and acquisitions ensure that partners have a broad portfolio for customers.
B. Cisco has one partner program to support all partner types.
C. Cisco focuses on meeting customer needs while protecting partner profitability.
D. Cisco focuses only on building internally for innovation and not on acquisitions.
E. Cisco provides partner programs to support different partner business models.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 What are three current business factors that are influencing customer decisions in making technology
investments? (Choose three.)
A. return on investment
B. competitiveness
C. number of product features
D. day one costs
E. regulation
F. availability of budget
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 In which area of the campus LAN are the user computers attached to the network?
A. core
B. access
C. distribution
D. aggregation
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which option best describes the primary value of the Cisco IP Next-Generation Network?
A. interoperates seamlessly with customers, though with only a few applications
B. provides unique network intelligence that runs throughout the architecture, regardless of traffic mix or
device
C. embeds intelligence in the core only
D. provides an access-specific solution that targets optical and Ethernet products
E. integrates only two of the four Cisco architectures
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which three services does Cisco provide to customers.? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco focuses solely on the cloud and web-based offerings, enabling endpoints to communicate.
B. Cisco accelerates the ability of IT to align more closely with the business and how people actually work.
C. Cisco delivers deployment agility across endpoints and the network, including the cloud, whether on
premises or off premises.
D. Cisco focuses mainly on devices linking endpoints and applications via a common framework.
E. Cisco delivers borderless experience across all major devices and operating systems.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.9 What is the Cisco goal regarding market share for each of the major markets that its products compete
in?
A. to compete effectively in every market in which Cisco participates
B. to be No.1 or No. 2 in every market in which Cisco participates
C. to be in the top 1 percent in every market in which Cisco participates
D. to be first in every market in which Cisco participates
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two features characterize controller-based deployments in a WLAN? (Choose two.)
A. coverage of large areas
B. individual device configuration
C. roaming that is facilitated by wireless-location services
D. coverage of a single area
E. seamless roaming throughout the network
Answer: A,E

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Exam Code: 650-665
Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco SP Video Wireline & Cable Headend Design Specialist for SE )

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NO.1 Which output formats are available from an IRD?
A. baseband, ASI and MPEGoIP
B. RF, SDI and optical
C. QAM, optical, and analog
D. RF, ASI, and MPEGoIP
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the modulation format used in Digital Video Broadcast-S?
A. QAM 256
B. FDM
C. QPSK
D. FM
Answer: C

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NO.3 What network management system can monitor and control video headend equipment.?
A. ANA
B. Cisco Works
C. ROSA
D. SNMP
Answer: C

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