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Exam Code: HP0-S25

Exam Name: HP (Implementing ProLiant ML/DL/SL Servers)

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NO.1 What is required to enable RAID 6+0 on the HP Smart Array P411 Controller.? (Select two.)
A. six enabled ports
B. Smart Array Advanced Pack
C. minimum of six disks
D. minimum of four disks
E. battery kit for installed BBWC
Answer: BE

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NO.2 Which protocols can HP SIM use for the initial data collection? (Select two.)
A. SNMP
B. ICMP
C. SMTP
D. DMI
Answer: AD

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NO.3 Which actions can HP SIM take on a trap sent by a ProLiant server? (Select two.)
A. send an email to the administrator
B. call the administrator phone number
C. launch a script
D. collect a "survey" file of the server and send it to the HP Support team
Answer: AC

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NO.4 You have just added two internal drives to your ProLiant server. Which utilities should you use to
allocate the raw space to the Smart Array volume and extend the Windows NTFS partition to use all the
new space? (Select two.)
A. diskpart.exe
B. chkdsk.exe
C. HP Storage Resource Manager
D. ACU
E. ORCA
Answer: AD

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NO.5 Which protocol provides system management data through the Windows Management Instrumentation
(WMI) framework for ProLiant servers?
A. WBEM
B. SNMP
C. HTTP
D. SSH
Answer: A

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NO.6 When purchasing the ProLiant Extended Warranty Care Pack, which features are included in addition
to the Base Warranty features? (Select three.)
A. software support
B. committed response times
C. hardware protection from manufacturer defect
D. flexible support levels
E. parts and labor
Answer: ABD

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NO.7 Which feature is exclusive to the ProLiant 100 Series family?
A. BIOS Serial Console
B. Automatic Server Recovery (ASR-2)
C. Watchdog Timer
D. Web-based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which type of disk drives are supported in an MSA 2000fc?
A. FATA drives
B. Ultra320 SCSI drives
C. SAS drives
D. FC drives
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is a new feature of the IPv6 addressing scheme?
A. a network prefix that enables routing decisions at the network layer
B. a network host that specifies a particular device in the network
C. an anycast address defined to send a packet to any one of a group of nodes
D. address space allocation, based on an octet system
Answer: C

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NO.10 Your customer needs to be able to split and recombine mirrors on his DL380 G6 Server. What must be
done to enable this feature?
A. Enable the Mirror Splitting in Offline Mode option in ACU.
B. Activate the Smart Array Advanced Pack (SAAP) by installing the activation license key in ORCA.
C. Activate the Smart Array Advanced Pack (SAAP) by installing the activation license key in RBSU.
D. Enable the Advanced Capacity Expansion option in ACU.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Where can you locate a SmartStart CD?
A. HP Insight Foundation Suite for ProLiant
B. HP Insight software
C. SmartStart Scripting Toolkit
D. Insight Rapid Deployment software
Answer: A

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NO.12 A customer wants you to configure his ProLiant G6 for maximum power saving. What is the
recommended way for you to accomplish this?
A. Plug in only one power cord, if the system is equipped with two power supplies.
B. Disable Hyperthreading.
C. Choose the "Minimum Power Usage" - profile in RBSU.
D. Choose the "Minimum Power Management" - profile in Control Panel.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which tool enables reactive and proactive remote support to improve the availability of HP- supported
servers and associated storage systems in a data center, relies on several HP components like Insight
Management Agent and uses SNMP or WBEM for communication?
A. HP Insight Remote Support Advanced
B. HP Remote Diagnostic Monitor
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. Proactive 24 Care Pack service
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which HP tool can be used to expand an existing array online?
A. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
B. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays (ORCA)
C. System Configuration Utility (SCU)
D. HP System Management Homepage (SMH)
E. Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
Answer: E

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NO.15 Which tool can be used to help optimize processor performance before and after modifications are
implemented?
A. Firmware Management CD
B. ProLiant Processor Performance Utility
C. HP Insight Performance Management module
D. Insight Control Power Capping
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which components are covered under the HP Pre-failure Warranty? (Select three.)
A. power supplies
B. host bus adapters
C. processors
D. SCSI drives
E. fans
F. memory
Answer: CDF

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
You are viewing systems on the CMS of HP Systems Insight Manager. What is indicated by the presence
of the PF column?
A. VMM is installed.
B. PMP is installed.
C. VCRM is installed.
D. IPM is installed.
Answer: B

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NO.18 When deploying an RDP solution, which network component must be installed and properly
configured?
A. SNMP
B. WBEM
C. SMTP
D. DHCP
Answer: D

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NO.19 If the MTBF of a single drive is 200,000 hours, how many hours is the MTBF of a five drive array?
A. 40,000 hours
B. 50,000 hours
C. 80,000 hours
D. 200,000 hours
E. 1,000,000 hours
Answer: A

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NO.20 A second Smart Array Controller has been added to a ProLiant server. What should you check in the
ROM-Based Setup Utility?
A. Removable Flash Media Boot Sequence
B. PCI Express 2.0 support
C. Standard Boot Order
D. Boot Controller Order
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-D05

Exam Name: HP (Designing HP Virtualization Solutions)

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NO.1 What is the name of the connection broker technology included in the VMware product offering for
desktop virtualization and virtual desktop management?
A. Session Allocation Manager (SAM)
B. Desktop Delivery Controller (DDC)
C. View Manager
D. vWorkspace
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which software-layer abstraction of the server hardware allows the guest operating system to be aware
of its virtualized host (hypervisor)?
A. CPU binary translation
B. hosted OS, application-layer abstraction
C. paravirtualization
D. hardware-assisted virtualization (full virtualization)
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which virtualization products use hosted-OS, application-layer abstraction? (Select two.)
A. Citrix XenServer
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
C. Microsoft Virtual Server 2005 R2
D. VMware Server
E. VMware ESX
Answer: CD

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NO.4 Which virtualization product uses paravirtualization?
A. Citrix XenServer
B. Microsoft Virtual Server 2005 R2
C. Virtual Iron
D. VMware ESX 3.5
Answer: A

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NO.5 In addition to CPU and memory utilization, which type of data does Capacity Advisor gather?
A. user load data
B. disk I/O data
C. cell partition data
D. system error data
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-K20

Exam Name: HP (Supporting HP StorageWorks P2000 Solutions)

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NO.1 Which statement is correct regarding the features of a P2000 G3 after an upgrade from a MSA2000 G2
storage array?
A. Asynchronous replication can be used in single-controller configurations.
B. The backend operates at 3Gb/s SAS speed.
C. Two 4Gb/s Fibre Channel ports per controller can be used.
D. The snapshot maximum is 255.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which transport protocol is used to connect a P2000 G3 MSA to a D270 disk enclosure.?
A. iSCSI
B. Fibre Channel
C. SAS
D. SATA
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which type of hot spare disks are used in a P2000 G3 storage system? (Select two)
A. pre-allocated
B. global
C. multi-purpose
D. generic
E. local
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which RAID level provides the best random mix I/O performance?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 50
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the minimum number of disks required to create a RAID 50 vdisk?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-J51

Exam Name: HP (Installing HP StorageWorks Solutions)

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NO.1 You are meeting with a customer who has many different backup applications and operating systems.
To identify which operating systems are supported with each backup application by VLS and D2D, which
HP document should you consult?
A. Storage Compatibility Matrix
B. EBS Compatibility Matrix
C. Backup Solutions Guide
D. Storage Backup Matrix
Answer: B

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NO.2 In the Storage Management Utility for a P2000 G3, which wizards are available to allow you to quickly
and easily set up the system? (Select two.)
A. Drive Wizard
B. Configuration Wizard
C. Replication Setup Wizard
D. Hosts Wizard
E. Physical Setup Wizard
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 In an HP P2000 storage array, the Drive Spin Down (DSD) feature can reduce power consumption by
powering down drive spindles. Which statements correctly describe the DSD feature? (Select two.)
A. Disk scrubbing is disabled when DSD is enabled.
B. Only RAID configured vdisks can be spun down.
C. Drive Spin Down delay defaults to 15 minutes.
D. Default state is enabled.
E. Only drives that reside in vdisks can be spun down.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which browser is supported to access X1000 Windows Server Remote Administration Applet from a
non-Microsoft computer?
A. Apple Safari
B. Google Chrome
C. Microsoft Internet Explorer
D. Mozilla Firefox
Answer: D

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NO.5 The HP P2000 G3 FC Storage Array supports both the MSA70 and D2700 disk enclosures. When
connecting these enclosures to the P2000 G3 FC controller, where can the MSA70 enclosure be cabled
without limiting performance?
A. any location
B. before all D2700 enclosures
C. after all D2700 enclosures
D. after the first D2700 enclosure
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which method of deduplication is used in the HP StoreOnce D2D devices?
A. fixed-length data segmenting
B. variable-length data segmenting
C. object-level differencing
D. hash-based chunking
Answer: D

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NO.7 A consultant meets with a customer to define a Disaster Recovery plan based on HP VLS technology.
What are the most important parameters the consultant must obtain from the customer.? (Select two.)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Restore Point Objective
C. Recovery Time Objective
D. Retention Point Objective
E. Retention Time Objective
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 A consultant is discussing with a customer how to create a four node multi-site cluster with the P4000
G2 family of products. The customer wants two physical sites, one being the primary. What is the
minimum total number of managers that should be run to guarantee quorum?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.9 Where can you find the DHCP-assigned IP address on your D2D system during initial
configuration?
A. Web Management Interface
B. VGA Console
C. Telnet
D. CommandView TL
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which CLI command is used to verify the setting of the IP address of a P2000 G3 Storage Array?
A. show ip-address
B. show network-parameters
C. show network-address
D. show network
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which P2000 G3 Combo FC/iSCSI controller ports would be most suitable for replicating snapshots to
remote locations?
A. 1GbE iSCSI
B. 10GbE iSCSI
C. 4Gb FC
D. 8Gb FC
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which HP P4000 management tool should you use to gather storage system status information?
A. Centralized Management Console (CMC)
B. HP Integrated Lights Out (ILO)
C. Web Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
D. System Management Homepage (SMH)
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is a feature of P4000 snapshots?
A. Snapshots are thin provisioned but can be made fully provisioned after being created.
B. As the original volume data changes the snapshot remains the same as the volume at its creation time.
C. The same amount of space is reserved for the snapshot as the original volume.
D. The snapshot is thinly provisioned and requires no reserve space.
Answer: D

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NO.14 When running diagnostics on a P4000 system you notice that the "BBU Capacity Test" is unchecked by
default. Why is this? (Select two.)
A. The test is not supported on any P4000 system.
B. The test can take up to 24 hours to complete.
C. The test can overwrite HDD data.
D. The test sends data to HP via the Internet.
E. The test turns off the controller's cache.
Answer: B,E

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NO.15 A customer has two HP P2000 G3 FC arrays. One is located at a remote branch office. You have been
asked to configure a replication set between the two arrays. Which components are required to form a
replication set? (Select two.)
A. external view volume
B. primary view volume
C. host accessible remote volume
D. destination snap pool
E. source snapshot
Answer: A,D

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NO.16 Which D2D network configuration mode will improve the availability of overall network bandwidth?
A. Single Port Configuration
B. Dual Port Configuration
C. High Availability (Port Failover) Configuration
D. High Availability (Link Aggregation) Configuration
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is the recommended minimum block size that should be configured when backing up to D2D
systems?
A. 64KB
B. 128KB
C. 256KB
D. 1MB
Answer: A

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NO.18 A customer wants to add a drive enclosure to his existing P2000 G3 system. What is the maximum
distance allowed between enclosures?
A. 1m
B. 2m
C. 5m
D. 10m
Answer: B

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NO.19 Your customer wants to monitor the performance of a P4000 G2 system. What is the minimum time
sample interval that can be set using the Performance Monitor?
A. 1 second
B. 5 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
Answer: B

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NO.20 What information is displayed in the Configuration View panel overview of the P2000 SMU about the
status of any FC hosts attached to it? (Select two.)
A. connection type
B. WWPN
C. HBA Firmware revision
D. operating system
E. profile
Answer: B,E

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Exam Code: HP3-X05

Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Mini NetBook Products)

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NO.1 Which statement is true regarding the Broadcom 4312G 802.11b/g WiFi and 2070 Bluetooth 2.1+EDR
Combo Adapter.?
A. The WLAN and Bluetooth devices are built into one standard minicardmodule.
B. Windows Device Manager detects the combination adapter as two separatedevices.
C. The HP Wireless Assistant can enable one device while the other remainsdisabled.
D. Performance is improved if the WLAN and Bluetooth modules are usedsimultaneously.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which capabilities does the Broadcom Crystal HD Enhanced Video Accelerator provide to HP mini
notebooks? (Select two.)
A. support for dual video processors
B. support for AVCHD
C. support for Gobi technology
D. support for WPAN technology
E. support for H.264 video file playback
Answer: B,E

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Exam Code: HP2-H15

Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Thin Client (HP2-H15) )

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NO.1 Which mainstream HP Thin Client is designed for the HP ThinPro operating system?
A. t5550
B. t5565
C. t5570
D. t5585
Answer: D

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NO.2 How should you present thin computing to your customers?
A. as a set of product offerings
B. as a user-customizable solution
C. as a full-function computer infrastructure
D. as a business solution
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which mainstream HP Thin Client should you recommend for a customer that uses Microsoft as their
standard operating system?
A. t5550
B. t5565
C. t5585
D. t5745
Answer: A

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NO.4 Where do the data and applications reside in a thin client solution.?
A. on the Internet
B. on a cluster of servers
C. on the client
D. in the data center
Answer: B

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NO.5 In addition to the thin client devices, which additional components comprise a thin client solution?
(Select two.)
A. localized boot image control
B. network connectivity
C. management software
D. RAID configured on internal drives
E. quad-core processor
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: HP2-Z22

Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Network Solutions)

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NO.1 Your customer is concerned that adding an 802.11n-compliant access point will overload the network
infrastructure where the controller connects to the network. How would the HP optimized WLAN alleviate
this concern?
A. The HP controllers support aggregated links, allowing you to increase bandwidth as needed to handle
the added traffic generated by 802.11n wireless networks.
B. The HP controller can buffer the wireless traffic as needed so that it does not cause congestion on the
wired network.
C. Each AP can forward traffic directly onto the wired network, so that the controller and its connection to
the network do not become bottlenecks.
D. The HP controller supports quality of service (QoS) mechanisms, allowing you to prioritize
delay-sensitive applications.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The FlexNetwork architecture is tailored to the needs of which business size?
A. Small businesses
B. Small and mid-sized businesses
C. Mid-sized and large businesses
D. Small, mid-sized, and large businesses
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which product feature contributes to the exceptional switching performance of the FlexFabric portfolio
for the mid-sized business?
A. The products for the mid-sized business provide low port density to simplify the network.
B. The products for the mid-sized business provide efficient packet buffering.
C. The products for the mid-sized business provide support for up to 40GbE at the access layer.
D. The products for the mid-sized business provide support for up to 150GbE at the core
Answer: C

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NO.4 How many ports in a legacy three-tier network are typically used just to interconnect the switches?
A. one-quarter (1/4)
B. one-half (1/2)
C. two-thirds (2/3)
D. three-quarters (3/4)
Answer: B

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NO.5 A mid-sized business is seeking a networking solution, and the customer is concerned about how the
components will work together from end to end now and in the future.
What message should the HP sales professional deliver.?
A. The customer must use the same vendor from end to end to ensure interoperability; HP provides
servers, storage, and networking components.
B. The customer should implement open standards wherever possible, and certainly at the boundaries of
each network segment to enable the company to select the best solutions for each segment and have
them interoperate
C. The customer should commit to a single open-standard vendor, which implements with proven,
best-in-industry solutions.
D. The customer should select solutions based on which provide the best proprietary protocols for the
company's highest priority business needs.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a typical struggle for a company that has allowed its network management solution to grow
organically?
A. The IT staff must use a diverse set of management tools that do not integrate with each other.
B. The company has been locked into a costly management solution as part of a package with a single
vendor.
C. The company has a single management solution which does not fit the needs of some segments of the
network.
D. The IT staff implement all configuration and management manually without the help of any
management tools.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is a primary disadvantage for companies that have committed to a single-vendor network?
A. The single-vendor network often fails to provide advanced solutions because proprietary technologies
so often lag behind open-standard ones.
B. The components in the single-vendor network fail to interoperate with each other well because they
use proprietary technologies.
C. The companies are limited in their future choice of services and solutions based on whether their
choices work with that vendor's proprietary technologies.
D. The company cannot segment the network well, which makes it more difficult for network designers to
implement an efficient, two-tier architecture.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Microsoft, Avaya, and Aastra provide what service through their HP AllianceONE partnership?
A. WAN acceleration for increased remote application performance
B. remote network management
C. reliable, unified communications
D. radio frequency (RF) vulnerability protection
Answer: C

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NO.9 How does the fact that the business model is shifting to a more centralized and virtualized data center
impact branch office networks?
A. Because businesses are shifting away from dedicated application servers running in the branch,
branch office network management is radically simplified.
B. Branch office networks have very few security and compliance concerns because all company data is
stored and backed up at a centralized location with targeted security.
C. Branch office networks may be farther from productivity-enhancing network resources than they used
to be, creating delay when helping customers.
D. Because the data center is composed of high-performance network devices with next-generation
traffic-prioritization capabilities, emerging voice and video applications will run with ease in today's branch
offices.
Answer: D

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NO.10 For campus LANs, Gartner predicts that one factor will push network capacity by as much as 10 times
current levels. What is this factor?
A. applications hosted in private clouds
B. video
C. Voice over IP traffic
D. SANs
Answer: B

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