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Exam Code: HP2-Z19

Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Network Security Solutions)

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NO.1 How can the TippingPoint Threat Management Center (TMC) be accessed? (Select three.)
A. directly by your SMS, if your SMS has a valid TMC username/password
B. by anyone with a browser and valid TMC username/password
C. using an FTP client
D. directly by your IPS
E. directly by your SMS, as your SMS does not need a TMC username/password
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit below.
You have configured IP helper addresses for VLAN 5 and VLAN 6 on this HP E5406 zl switch. However,
users in these VLANs report that their computers are not receiving DHCP addresses. Which feature must
be enabled to address this problem?
A. DNS
B. DHCP relay
C. IP routing
D. DHCP snooping
Answer: B

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6.Port B1 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch is an untagged member of VLAN 155 and not a tagged
member of any VLAN. Port C1 is a tagged member of VLAN 155 and an untagged member of VLAN 100.
You issue the following command:
5406.l(config)# no vlan 155
Why do you receive the following prompt?
The following ports will be moved to the default VLAN:
B1Do you want to continue? [y/n]:
A. The CLI always issues this prompt when deleting a VLAN.
B. The CLI will not allow you to orphan a port.
C. The CLI will not delete a VLAN with any port membership.
D. All ports must be moved to the default VLAN before you can delete the VLAN.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which categories of routing protocols include RIP and OSPF? (Select two.)
A. exterior gateway
B. link state
C. label switching
D. distance vector
E. interior gateway
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 Which remote management interface on an E-Series switch can be secured by enabling Secure
Sockets Layer (SSL)?
A. console
B. menu
C. web management
D. Telnet
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the effect of the following commands entered at the CLI of an HP E8212 zl switch with routing
and RIP enabled?E8212(rip)# redistribute ospf
A. The switch will filter OSPF routes from RIP updates received from peers.
B. The switch will include routes learned through OSPF in all RIP updates.
C. The switch will include routes learned through RIP in all OSPF link-state messages.
D. The switch will give preference to OSPF routes over RIP routes in its route table.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Multiple user accounts can be created on an IPS device. Each can be assigned to one of three roles:
super-user, administrator, or operator. Which statements are true about these roles? (Select two.)
A. An administrator can reset the audit log.
B. A super-user can create new accounts and edit existing account passwords.
C. An operator is a view-only role.
D. Only the super-user can reboot an IPS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 By default, what is an IPS single super-user called?
A. By default, the single super-user is called root.
B. By default, the single super-user is called SuperUser.
C. By default, the single super-user is called admin.
D. There is no default user.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the serial console speed of an IPS?
A. 9600
B. 19200
C. 115,200
D. user configurable
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which E-Series CLI commands enable you to view all show commands available in the current context?
(Select two.)
A. Switch# show /?
B. Switch# show all
C. Switch# show help
D. Switch# show ?
E. Switch# show <tab>
F. Switch# help show
Answer: D,E

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NO.10 What does the Threat Management Center (TMC) allow you to do? (Select three.)
A. Download TOS images.
B. Access knowledgebase articles.
C. Remotely log in to your IPS.
D. Download Digital Vaccines.
E. Download custom Digital Vaccines.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit below.
You enter the following command at the switch ¯ s C L I: E5406 ( v l a-100)# no untag a24
Why does this command fail?
A. Port A24 is not a member of VLAN 100.
B. Port A24 must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. VLAN 100 must have at least one port member.
D. no untag a24 is an invalid CLI command.
Answer: B

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NO.12 A security administrator for a TippingPoint IPS suspects that an employee has logged into the IPS and
altered its configuration. How can the security administrator analyze and undo all of the unauthorized
changes?
A. by reviewing the IPS system log, searching for filter hits from the employee
B. by reviewing the IPS audit log, filtering by the employee ¯ s use r na m e and / o r I P adress
C. by reviewing the configuration changes listed in the IPS alert log
D. by reviewing the IPS block log (the employee would have been blocked)
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are benefits of implementing Secure Socket Shell (SSH) for remote management of HP switches?
(Select two.)
A. user accounting
B. encryption of management traffic
C. stronger passwords
D. enforcement of management VLAN
E. secure authentication
F. encryption of all traffic
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 Refer to the exhibit below.
What is indicated by this entry in the IP route table of an HP E8212 zl switch?
A. The switch has been configured with an ACL that blocks communications with the loopback interfaces.
B. The switch does not permit communications with any loopback interface.
C. Traffic to this interface is rejected with the single exception of traffic to the host address of the switch ¯ s
loopback interface (127.0.0.1/ 32).
D. A loopback interface is configured with 127.0.0.0.
Answer: C

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NO.15 You must update the software on an HP E3500 yl switch. Which devices can be sources for the copy
command? (Select two.)
A. USB flash drive
B. management workstation hard drive
C. TFTP server
D. FTP server
E. Compact Flash card
Answer: A,C

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NO.16 You make configuration changes to the running configuration of your HP E3500 yl switch. Which
command saves these changes to your startup configuration?
A. save running-config
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. write memory
D. write config
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which security technology requires that you set read/write community names?
A. SFTP
B. SSH
C. SNMP
D. HTTPS
E. SMTP
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which HP E-Series switch models display the following prompt in the interface configuration context?
(Select two.)HP Switch(eth-A24)#
A. E8212 zl
B. E6600-24G
C. E5412-96G zl
D. E2910-24G al
E. E3500-48G-POE yl
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.19 A security administrator at a university has been tasked with identifying the TippingPoint IPS that
would best meet the university's needs. The university has a complex network, with a mixture of both fiber
and copper wiring. IPS protection must be provided for three copper segments and two fiber segments.
The aggregate bandwidth (with expansion capacity) is not expected to exceed 3Gbps over the next four
years.
Which TippingPoint IPS solution should the security administrator recommend?
A. 2 TippingPoint 330s and 1 TippingPoint 600E
B. TippingPoint 5000E or TippingPoint 5100N
C. TippingPoint SMS
D. TippingPoint 5100N only
Answer: D

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NO.20 You are at the manager level prompt in the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch. Which options are available at
this prompt? (Select two.)
A. assign IP address to VLAN interface
B. enable IP routing
C. restart the switch
D. disable ports
E. update software
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: HP0-J40

Exam Name: HP (Designing HP StorageWorks Solutions)

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NO.1 Which management protocols are used to gather basic information from the system, such as the type
of system (server, workstation, or printer) and serial number? (Select two.)
A. WBEM
B. NTP
C. SMI-S
D. TCP/IP
E. SCTP
Answer: AC

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NO.2 for application disaster recovery, which type of local replication permits rapid recovery of applications?
A. capacity free snapshot
B. snapclone
C. consistency group snap
D. traditional snapshot
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has Microsoft clusters presenting multiple TB of data as file services. The customer is
looking for a technology approach to simplify the data lifecycle management of that large amount of data.
Which HP Storage Essentials SRM tool would help the customer to quickly identify disk space that can be
recycled, pinpoint critical files that should be replicated, and more accurately implement Information
Management initiatives?
A. Backup Manager
B. NAS Manager
C. File System Viewer
D. Provisioning Manager
Answer: C

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NO.4 A potential customer is experiencing massive data growth in the past year and is no longer meeting
their backup window. The customer's current environment consists of approximately 30 ProLiant servers
utilizing Backup Exec and a SCSI attached LTO2 autoloader.
After a number of meetings, the consultant presents the design of a D2D4112, an MSL8096 with HP Data
Protector. The customer likes the solution, but is concerned about how their staff will cope with the new
concepts and the transition to the new solution.
What should the consultant recommend to the customer for a smooth transition to the new equipment?
(Select two.)
A. hands-on training during implementation
B. handover session after the installation
C. formal classroom training on the new products
D. as-built configuration documentation
E. solution presentation
Answer: AC

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NO.5 Which component handles file locking in a traditional file servicing infrastructure?
A. majority node
B. file server
C. witness file share
D. quorum disk
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the main function of core or director switches?
A. provide support of multiple traffic classes over a lossless Ethernet fabric
B. provide inter-switch links for any-to-any connectivity
C. provide Fibre Channel over IP and iSCSI connectivity
D. provide user ports for connecting servers and storage systems
Answer: B

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NO.7 When talking to a CEO about service availability, which feature of HP Storage Essentials SRM should
be positioned by the consultant?
A. SRM solutions are designed on the SMI-S industry standard for storage network management.
B. Big-picture view monitors and reports on a variety of business applications.
C. Big-picture visualization automatically discovers and maps the storage network.
D. SRM monitors utilization of the host, switch, and array.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which technology enables support of multiple traffic classes over a lossless Ethernet fabric?
A. Fibre Channel over Ethernet
B. Converged Enhanced Ethernet
C. Data Center Bridging
D. Shortest Path Bridging
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which best practice should be suggested when designing an iSCSI Storage Area Network?
A. limit parallel iSCSI sessions to 500 to achieve optimal performance
B. separate iSCSI traffic from all other network traffic
C. implement separate VLANS for each database application service
D. team 1Gb/s networks to achieve optimal performance
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which encryption type is used for securing data in transit over IP networks?
A. Advanced Encryption Standard
B. Internet protocol security
C. crypto processing engine
D. Storage Media Encryption
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-S28

Exam Name: HP (Intergrating & Managing HP Blade System Solutions in Enterprise)

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NO.1 You want to restart the Virtual Connect Manager after changes are made. Which CLI command should
you use to accomplish this?
A. reipl vcm
B. reload vcm
C. reboot vcm
D. reset vcm
Answer: D

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NO.2 You want to receive an email notification if a blade in a particular enclosure has a hardware failure.
Where do you navigate in HP SIM to accomplish this.?
A. Tasks > Alerts > Paging
B. User > Event Notification > Email
C. Options > Events > Automatic Event Handling
D. Options > User Notifications > Email Distributor
Answer: C

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NO.3 The customer has an environment of multiple web servers and two database servers all running on
Microsoft Windows 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. The requirement is to provide high availability for data
and efficient access to the web farm. Which solution meets the needs of this customer?
A. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for both the web servers and database servers
B. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for the web servers and a quorum disk model server
cluster to provide high availability for the database servers
C. A rotating standby cluster to support the web farm and a quorum disk model server cluster to provide
high availability for the database servers
D. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for the web servers and a Majority Node Set (MNS)
server cluster to provide high availability for the database servers
Answer: B

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NO.4 Click the Task button. Click on the Windows option that allows a system administrator to install HP
Insight Control on a Windows server that will be used to deploy Linux servers
Answer:

NO.5 When configuring Virtual Connect local accounts using CLI, which access privileges can be assigned?
(Select three.)
A. Domain
B. Server
C. User
D. Storage
E. Administrator
F. Operator
Answer: ABD

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NO.6 The customer wants to upgrade the memory in an existing BL460 G6. Using the HP DDR3 Memory
Configuration Tool, what is the easiest way to examine the existing memory configuration?
A. Use Insight Diagnostics on the involved blade.
B. Use memconfig and upload that information.
C. Use the HP System Management Homepage.
D. Upload the diag.log to the Memory Config Tool.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the recommended resource to determine the power and cooling requirements of your
configuration?
A. HP BladeSystem Power Sizer
B. HP ProLiant Cooling Advisor
C. HP Thermal Logic
D. HP BladeSystem Spreadsheet
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which software components must be installed before you can install HP Insight Control? (Select two.)
A. Application Server Console
B. Microsoft iSCSI Initiator
C. Certificate Services
D. Internet Information Services
E. Email Services
Answer: BD

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NO.9 Which HP offering helps IT staff to use their systems more efficiently, resulting in a higher return on IT
investments?
A. Education Services
B. OpenView Storage Mirroring
C. Customer Self Repair
D. SupportPlus Services
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement is correct regarding the subnet manager when designing an HP BladeSystem
solution using InfiniBand in a Windows environment?
A. A subnet manager has to be installed on a Linux host.
B. A subnet manager is automatically installed on the first InfiniBand module.
C. A subnet manager can run host-based and switch-based.
D. A subnet manager is optional.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What are valid HP SIM report formats? (Select two.)
A. XML
B. RPT
C. RTF
D. CSV
E. DOC
Answer: AD

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NO.12 When designing a BladeSystem hardware solution in order to prevent system failures, which questions
should you ask? (Select two.)
A. How much money or productivity is lost per minute of downtime?
B. What administrative efforts are required to fix problems?
C. When was the last failure?
D. What is the duration of the backup window?
E. What is the disk I/O throughput?
Answer: AB

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NO.13 Detecting a clustered host failure is accomplished by monitoring the heartbeats sent between the hosts.
You plan to test the heartbeat connection to cause a failover. Which networks are used in VMware for the
heartbeats? (Select two.)
A. On ESX hosts, a VMkernel network is used.
B. On ESXi hosts, a VMkernel network is used.
C. On ESX hosts, the service console network is used.
D. On ESXi hosts, the service console network is used.
Answer: BC

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NO.14 Which statement is true about managing ESX hosts that are controlled by a second Virtual Center
server?
A. Each Virtual Center server needs an extra license for HP SIM.
B. Insight Control must be version 6.0 or greater.
C. The total number of virtual machines managed by a Virtual Center server must not exceed 200.
D. Virtual Center servers managed by one SIM server need to be on the same subnet.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which HP resource can help to plan and verify a consolidated storage infrastructure in combination
with an HP BladeSystem solution?
A. HP Replication Systems Manager
B. HP Storage Sizing Tool
C. HP SAN Design Reference Guide
D. HP SalesBuilder for Windows
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which HP Enterprise Virtual Array snapshot concept is shown in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. Snapclone
B. Demand-allocated snapshot
C. Mirrorclone
D. Fully-allocated snapshot
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which method is recommended when deploying a Windows 2008 operating system on an Integrity
Server Blade?
A. Use make_net_recovery
B. Use HP Insight Rapid Deployment software
C. Use third-party imaging tools
D. Use EFI management options
Answer: B

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NO.18 A customers c7000 enclosure has 10 fans installed. The fan in bay 2 fails. There are no blades that are
powered on in device bays 5 through 8 or in device bays 13 through 16. Which statements are true in this
situation? (Select two.)
A. The fan subsystem is no longer redundant.
B. The fan subsystem is still redundant.
C. The blade in device bay 2 powers down.
D. The failed fan is marked failed.
E. The failed fan is marked as degraded.
F. The blade in device bay 1 powers down.
Answer: BD

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NO.19 On what can Insight Control 6x Central Management Server (CMS) be installed? (Select two.)
A. Citrix XenServer 4.5 using Windows 2003 Standard SP2 virtual machine
B. Citrix XenServer 5.5 using Windows 2008 Standard R2 virtual machine
C. VMware ESX 3.5 Update 4 using Windows 2003 Standard SP2 virtual machine
D. Microsoft Hyper-V Server 2008 R2 using Windows 2008 R2 Enterprise 32-bit virtual machine
E. VMware ESX 4 using Windows 2003 Enterprise SP1 virtual machine
F. Microsoft Server 2008 R2 with Hyper-V using Windows 2003 Enterprise SP2 32-bit virtual machine
Answer: CF

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NO.20 What must be done to keep previous user credentials when upgrading an HP Systems Insight Manager
Central Management Server (CMS) from version 3.0 to a current version?
A. Use the CMS Import Utility.
B. Use the Database Converter Tool.
C. Use the CMS Migration Tool.
D. Use the Database Upgrade Utility.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-Y23

Exam Name: HP (Deploying HP ProCurve Products )

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NO.1 Besides the CLI, which configuration interface enables an administrator to configure a user name for
access to the Manager privilege level on an HP ProCurve switch?
A.menu interface
B.web interface
C.setup interface
D.Management Interface Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.2 You must configure an IP interface for VLAN 22 on an HP ProCurve switch. Besides the IP address,
which parameter is required?
A.subnet mask
B.DNS server
C.default gateway
D.port members
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which options are available at the following prompt in the CLI of an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch?
(Select three.)
3500yl-24G#
A.enable IP routing
B.update switch software
C.disable ports
D.erase startup configuration
E.define management passwords
F.restart the switch
G.assign IP address to VLAN interface
Answer: BDF

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NO.4 You must define a hostname on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch. Which configuration context must you
enter to perform this task?
A.interface
B.global configuration
C.manager
D.operator
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which privilege level is indicated by the following prompt at the CLI of an HP ProCurve switch?
3500yl-24G>
A.operator
B.interface
C.global configuration
D.manager
Answer: A

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NO.6 What can be used as a destination when backing up the configuration on an HP ProCurve 3500yl
switch? (Select two.)
A.TFTP server
B.compact flash
C.neighboring switch
D.USB flash drive
E.FTP server
Answer: AD

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NO.7 What is the effect of the following command issued at the CLI of an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch?
5406zl# configure terminal
A.The CLI moves to the global configuration context.
B.The CLI provides an interface for configuring persistent terminal variables such as line length.
C.The CLI displays user input in the terminal.
D.The CLI displays current configuration parameters.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You must configure an IP interface on an HP ProCurve switch. Which CLI context will enable you to
perform this task?
A.router
B.manager
C.CLI passthrough
D.VLAN
Answer: D

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NO.9 You must configure an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch for installation in a network that uses RSTP to form
a single-instance Spanning Tree. What must you do to ensure that the 3500yl will participate in this
Spanning Tree?
A.Enter spanning-tree in the global configuration context.
B.Enter spanning-tree rstp in the configuration context for every VLAN the switch shares with another
switch.
C.Enter spanning-tree protocol-version rstp in the Spanning Tree configuration context.
D.Enter spanning-tree autodetect in the configuration context of every port where the switch will hear
Spanning Tree BPDUs.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP ProCurve switch with factory
default settings?
ProCurveSwitch# exit
A.All switch ports are enabled.
B.The user is logged out of the CLI.
C.The privilege level moves from Manager to Operator.
D.The CLI displays an authentication prompt.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-Z04

Exam Name: HP (Building HP ProCurve Campus LANs)

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NO.1 Your company's security policies require managers to use HTTPS to access Web browser interfaces
of infrastructure products. Which tasks must you complete on each product? (Select two.)
A. Generate a self-signed server certificate for HTTPS.
B. Install a server certificate for HTTPS obtained from a Certificate Authority.
C. Install a client certificate for HTTPS obtained from a Certificate Authority.
D. Generate a certificate revocation list for HTTPS.
E. Generate an HTTPS client certificate.
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 Which type of OSPF Link State Advertisement (LSA) does an Area Border Router (ABR) send into one
area to advertise a summary route to all networks in another area?
A. type 5
B. type 3
C. type 2
D. type 1
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your network includes only one DHCP server, which is in a different VLAN from many DHCP clients.
Which statement is true about configuring a DHCP Helper address on the DHCP clients' VLANs?
A. The DHCP Helper address converts the VLAN tag of the client's broadcasts to allow the DHCP server
to assign the correct unicast IP address.
B. The DHCP Helper address is not required because switches automatically forward DHCP requests to
the appropriate DHCP servers.
C. The DHCP Helper includes a list of addresses that the switch assigns to clients in unicast DHCP
replies.
D. For the DHCP clients' broadcasts to reach the server, the switch must translate them to traffic directed
to the DHCP helper address.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You want to establish a WAN connection using an X.21 cable. What is the correct Layer 2 protocol to
configure on your router to support this connection?
A. ATM
B. Frame Relay
C. HDLC
D. PPPoE
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement is correct about security technology implemented in SNMPv3?
A. SNMPv3 applies authentication keys and algorithms to management traffic so that the recipient can
verify that packets have not been tampered with.
B. SNMPv3 utilizes symmetric cryptography, which uses a pair of mathematically related hash functions
to encrypt and decrypt messages.
C. SNMPv3 uses hash functions and encryption algorithms such as MD5 and SHA-1.
D. When using the AES algorithm with SNMPv3, it produces a larger message digest than the DES
algorithm.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A router has several interfaces that are all in the same OSPF areas. You want the router to receive a
default route and summary routes but no routes that have been redistributed into OSPF from another
routing method. How should you define the router's OSPF area?
A. Stub Area
B. Not-So-Stubby Area
C. transit Area
D. type 3 area
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which parameter should you configure on an Autonomous System Border Router (ASBR) to allow it to
produce special Link State Advertisements (LSAs) that advertise external routes in a stub area?
A. Not-So-Stubby Area
B. Static Route Mapping
C. Stub Area
D. Backup Designated Router
Answer: A

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NO.8 What must be enabled on a Cisco switch for Cisco PVST+ to interoperate with ProCurve devices
running 802.1s (MSTP) spanning tree?
A. VLAN 4096
B. the native VLAN
C. PVST+ compatibility mode
D. 802.1s (MSTP) compatibility mode
E. VLAN 1
Answer: E

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NO.9 Which value composes the unique byte of a Master VRRP router's MAC address?
A. the default priority of the original VRRP Master
B. a random number between 1-255 that is generated when the VRRP instance is created
C. the Master's loopback address
D. the ID associated with the VRRP instance
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which security technology in Internet Key Exchange (IKE) allows endpoints to generate secure keys
without agreeing to them beforehand?
A. AES
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. RSA
D. HMAC
Answer: B

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NO.11 You are running Secure Shell (SSH) on your HP ProCurve switch, and you want to authenticate the
device that you use to manage the switch using the SSH-Client-Public-Key method. What must you do?
A. Generate a public and private key pair on the client, copying the client private key to the switch.
B. Generate a public and private key pair on the switch.
C. Copy the switch public and private key pair to the client.
D. Generate a public and private key pair on the client, copying the public key to the switch.
Answer: D

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NO.12 A multicast packet is received on a switch in a VLAN that does not have IGMP enabled. How is the
packet handled?
A. The packet is flooded to a subset of the hosts on the VLAN, based on the source IP address of the
multicast stream.
B. The packet is transmitted on all ports that belong to the VLAN.
C. Because the routing interface for the VLAN has no way of resolving which hosts on the VLAN wish to
join the multicast, the packet is dropped.
D. Because the switch has no way of resolving which hosts on the VLAN wish to join the multicast, the
packet is flooded to all Rendezvous Points for proper routing.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the maximum number of untagged VLAN assignments on each port of an HP ProCurve Switch
3500yl-24PoE?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 10
D. the number set with the max-VLANs command
Answer: A

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NO.14 You have configured values for the Tunnel-Type, Tunnel-Pvt-Group-ID, and Tunnel-Medium-Type
attributes in a policy on your RADIUS server. Which dynamic setting(s)
have you created?
A. dynamic ACL only
B. dynamic VLAN only
C. dynamic rate limit only
D. dynamic rate limit and dynamic VLAN
E. dynamic ACL and dynamic VLAN
Answer: B

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NO.15 .An IT manager wants to form a dynamic LACP trunk between two switches to increase bandwidth in
the network. What are valid configurations for achieving this goal? (Select two.)
A. Switch 1 ports = LACP Passive; Switch 2 ports = LACP Passive
B. Switch 1 ports = LACP Active; Switch 2 ports = LACP Active
C. Switch 1 ports = LACP Active; Switch 2 ports = LACP Passive
D. Switch 1 ports = HP Trunking; Switch 2 ports = LACP trunking
E. Switch 1 ports = 100FDx; Switch 2 ports = 1000FDx
Answer: B, C

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NO.16 What is achieved by a shared secret, configured on both the RADIUS server and the RADIUS client?
(Select two.)
A. It defines the authentication domain.
B. It authenticates the server and client to each other.
C. It sets the password for users allowed to connect to the network.
D. It sets the password for switch managers.
E. It verifies the integrity of RADIUS messages. placed in blocking
Answer: B, E

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NO.17 What does Secure Shell (SSH) use to conceal the content management traffic from eavesdroppers?
A. asymmetric cryptography
B. symmetric cryptography
C. message authentication codes
D. username and password authentication
Answer: B

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NO.18 You are attempting to estimate the range of your wireless access point's signal. Which factors affect
the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) of its radio?
A. data rate and signal attenuation
B. cable loss and antenna gain
C. traffic patterns and antenna gain
D. transmit power and signal attenuation
Answer: B

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NO.19 You want a ProCurve switch to send SNMPv2c traps to a management station. What must you
configure? (Select two.)
A. the correct SNMP encryption password
B. the IP address of the host that will receive the traps
C. SNMP Read/Write access to the host that will receive the traps
D. the correct SNMP username and password for the host that will receive the traps
E. the SNMP community string of the host that will receive the traps
Answer: B, E

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NO.20 You have created a port trunk consisting of three links between two HP ProCurve switches: Switch A
and Switch B. When Device C sends a packet to Server D, Switch A forwards the packet over link 1 in the
trunk. Which statement is true about how Switch A will transmit the next packet between Device C and
Server D?
A. It will send the packet over link 1 unless link 1 has reached the congestion threshold.
B. It will send the packet over link 2 or link 3.
C. It will send the packet over any of the three links, selected randomly.
D. It will send the packet over link 1.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-E32

Exam Name: HP (Selling HP SMB Solutions)

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NO.1 A customer has a limited IT budget and is interested only in cost savings. Of which HP product or
service should you advise this customer to consider?
A. simplified setup features
B. the cost savings of a newBladeSystem deployment
C. the longer lifecycle of HP systems for a better ROI for their investment
D. the high availability features of HP Integrity products
Answer: C

HP   HP2-E32   HP2-E32

NO.2 A customer who has a group of employees performing similar Microsoft Office application tasks wants to
reduce their total cost of ownership (TCO). Which HP solution should you recommend to this customer?
A. desktops
B. notebooks
C. thin clients
D. workstations
Answer: C

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NO.3 A biometric fingerprint sensor is an example of which type of feature?
A. security
B. reliability
C. performance
D. ease of use
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is true about a consultative sale?
A. The customer has a predefined product and solution they want.
B. The sales process is based on adding value.
C. The sales process focuses on the fastest shipment and arrival date of product.
D. The sales process focuses on commodity elements of the lowest price.
Answer: A

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NO.5 After speaking with a customer, you determine their desktop requirements include a highly stable device
with built-in manageability features. Their greatest concern, however, is security. Which HP solution is
best for this customer?
A. Essential Business PC Series
B. Advanced Business PC Series
C. Elite Business PC Series
D. All-in-One Business PC Series
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which services elements are targeted for commercial or SMB customers?
A. Critical Services
B. SupportPlus Services
C. Proactive 24 Services
D. Care Pack Services
Answer: D

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NO.7 During stage 2 of the sales cycle, Validate the Opportunity, what should be done?
A. discover customer business challenges
B. create a reference story
C. prepare the terms and conditions of the proposal
D. confirm the customer's budget and commitment
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which type of sales process typically focuses on pricing and delivery?
A. solution sale
B. lifecycle sale
C. consultative sale
D. transactional sale
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-B40

Exam Name: HP (Office Color Solutions – Technical)

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NO.1 Research indicates that readers usually see elements on a document page in a specific order. Pictures
or illustrations are seen first, and body copy is seen last. What is the order of elements that come in
between?
A. charts or graphs; headlines; captions
B. captions; headlines; charts or graphs
C. headlines; charts or graphs; captions
D. headlines; captions; charts or graphs
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which elements of an image suffer in reduction when the image is reduced in size? (Select three.)
A. photo-realistic areas
B. very thin lines
C. light shadowing
D. halftone screens
E. very colorful elements
F. white text on solid background
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.3 What are the photoreceptors of the human eye, which are responsible for color vision?
A. rods
B. cones
C. foveas
D. retinas
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement is true about the three-dimensionality of color?
A. Saturation refers to the purity of a color.
B. Brightness names a main region of the spectrum.
C. Saturation is the perceived dominant wavelengths of a color and gives the color its name.
D. Hue describes the distance of a color to the neutral grayscale in the middle of the color
universe.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement is true about color?
A. Color is a pure, physical process.
B. To make color occur, you need light and an object.
C. To make color occur, you need an object and an observer.
D. Color only occurs when a combinationof a light source, an object, and an observer are present.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two rules of thumb used to determine if an image is suitable for printing? (Select two.)
A. If the image resolution is unknown, zoom the image to 400% and verify the quality.
B. Calculate dpi by dividing the image resolution by the size of the desired output.
C. Divide the desired output size by the resolution of the image.
D. If the image resolution is unknown, zoom the image to 150% and verify the quality.
E. Calculate dpi by multiplying the image resolution by the size of the desired output.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 What are common misconceptions about the adoption/use of color? (Select three.)
A. Color is not always available.
B. Color is very expensive.
C. There is no way to manage the abuse of color.
D. Color is difficult and costly to maintain.
E. Color makes employees less productive, as they are distracted.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 What are advantages of communicating with color over black/white, which are proven by independent
market research institutes? (Select three.)
A. Color increases readership.
B. Color can simplify complex information.
C. Color makes price-discussions unnecessary.
D. Color allows for more effective communication.
E. Color directly helps increase stock market share prices.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 Which statements concerning non-color-managed applications are true? (Select two.)
A. Files from non-color-managed applications can only be printed on RGB printers.
B. Non-color-managed applications are Microsoft Office Applicationsand most Web browsers.
C. Non-color-managed applications allow the user to use comprehensive color settings, like changing
color gamuts before printing.
D. When pictures/images are inserted into the non-color-managed applications of the Microsoft Office
Package, the respective colors are all converted to sRGB values.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which color appears when the surface of an object absorbs the medium wavelengths of a light source.?
A. red
B. magenta
C. green
D. yellow
Answer: A

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