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Exam Code: 251-250
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Staorage Foundation 5.0 for UNIX)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 208 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 Which command grows the datavol volume by an additional 30 MB and resizes the file system at
the same time?
A.vxassist -g datadg growby datavol 30m
B.vxresize -g datadg datavol 30m
C.vxresize -g datadg datavol +30m
D.vxassist -g datadg growto datavol 30m
Correct:C

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.2 Which command displays the amount of free space in the configuration database of the datadg
disk group?
A.vxdg -g datadg free
B.vxdg -g datadg list
C.vxdg free datadg
D.vxdg list datadg
Correct:D

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.3 Which command removes the datadg02 disk from the datadg disk group?
A.vxassist datadg rmdisk datadg02
B.vxdg datadg rmdisk datadg02
C.vxassist datadg remove disk datadg02
D.vxdg datadg remove datadg02
Correct:B

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.4 Which commands display plex, volume, and kernel states? (Choose two.)
A.vxcat
B.vxdisplay
C.vxinfo
D.vxprint
E.vxstate
Correct:C D

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.5 Which vxassist parameter is used to set the number of data plexes in a non-layered mirrored
volume?
A.nplex
B.numplex
C.nummirror
D.nmirror
Correct:D

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.6 Which command can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A.vxedit
B.vxassist
C.vxremove
D.vxevac
E.vxmirror
Correct:A B

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.7 After initializing a disk for use in Volume Manager, which command is used to create a disk
group named datadg on a device shown as device_tag and using a disk media name of datadg01?
A.vxassist create datadg datadg01=device_tag
B.vxdg create datadg datadg01=device_tag
C.vxdg init datadg datadg01=device_tag
D.vxassist datadg init datadg01= device_tag
Correct:C

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.8 Which command displays the number of paths to the datadg01 disk?
A.vxdisk list datadg01
B.vxdg list datadg01
C.vxpath list datadg01
D.vxdmpadm list datadg01
Correct:A

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.9 In the output of the vxdisk list command, there are no entries in the DISK and GROUP columns.
However, you see online invalid in the output of the STATUS column. What does the online invalid
status indicate?
A.The disk is failing and needs to be replaced for future use in Volume Manager.
B.The disk is incompatible with the current release of Volume Manager.
C.The disk is available for initialization or encapsulation by Volume Manager.
D.The disk is available for use and has encapsulated data deported on another system.
Correct:C

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.10 Which command upgrades the datadg disk group from version 50 to the current disk group
version?
A.vxdg -T 50 upgrade datadg
B.vxdg upgrade datadg
C.vxdg currvers datadg
D.vxdg 50 currvers datadg
Correct:B

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.11 When creating a new volume with the New Volume Wizard in VEA, which layout options are
available to create a layered volume? (Choose two.)
A.concatenate-mirror
B.stripe-mirror
C.mirror-stripe
D.mirror-concatenate
E.concatenate-stripe
F.stripe-concatenate
Correct:A B

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.12 Which command is used to change the stripe unit size and number of columns for the datavol
volume in the datadg disk group?
A.vxvol datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
B.vxassist datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
C.vxvol datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
D.vxassist datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
Correct:D

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.13 Which vxsnap command option recreates a space-optimized instant snapshot?
A.restore
B.reattach
C.refresh
D.reassociate
Correct:C

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.14 Which statements are true about renaming the disk object? (Choose two.)
A.New disk names must be unique within the disk group.
B.All subdisks will be renamed together with the disk.
C.The disk group needs to be offline.
D.The new disk name must be unique within the system.
E.Subdisks names will remain the same.
Correct:A E

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.15 What are valid mount options for a Veritas file system? (Choose two.)
A.nolargefiles
B.shared
C.logtmp
D.delaylog
E.logdelay
Correct:A D

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.16 Which statement is true about adding a mirror to an existing striped volume?
A.A concatenated plex is added to the volume by default.
B.You can use any disks in the disk group to contain the new plex.
C.Synchronization of the new plex is required.
D.You should add the new plex to a different disk group for redundancy.
Correct:C

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.17 Which states are displayed in the output of vxprint? (Choose two.)
A.Data
B.Kernel
C.File System
D.Volume
E.User
Correct:B D

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.18 The upgrade scripts are being used to upgrade Volume Manager. Which file's existence would
indicate that the upgrade_start script had been run, but the upgrade_finish has yet to be run?
A./UPGRADE_START/.start_runed
B./VXVM5.0-UPGRADE/.start_runed
C./etc/vx/.start_runed
D./etc/vx/.upgrade_runed
Correct:B

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.19 Which statements are true about deporting a disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The volumes are unavailable.
B.The disk group is available for importing.
C.The disk group is deported and online.
D.The file systems are destroyed.
E.The file systems are accessible.
Correct:A B

Symantec   251-250 dumps   251-250

NO.20 What occurs when you add an initialized disk to an existing disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The public and private regions are created on the disk.
B.An empty volume is created on the disk by default.
C.The disk group configuration database is updated.
D.Volume Manager performs a rescan to recognize all newly configured disks.
E.The disk is stamped with the system host ID.
Correct:C E

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Exam Code: ST0-058
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundations 5.1 for Windows (STS))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that holds a single complete
copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. subdisk
D. LUN
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which action in the Veritas Enterprise Administrator console should you use to move a set of subdisks
from one dynamic disk group to a new dynamic disk group?
A. Split Dynamic Disk Group
B. Remove Disks from Dynamic Disk Group
C. Move Dynamic Disk Group Objects
D. Join Dynamic Disk Group
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which advantage does the hot relocation feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows
provide?
A. rebuilding of redundancy when there is a disk failure
B. automatic synchronization of replicated data
C. fast synchronization of RAID 5 volumes after a system crash
D. optimized synchronization of stale volume data
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that contains plex objects?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout that achieves redundancy by
striping data with parity across multiple disks?
A. RAID 5
B. striped mirroring
C. concatenation
D. mirroring
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows provide?
A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data
B. ability to grow volumes online
C. control of volumes across heterogeneous systems
D. fast resynchronization of mirrored volumes after a system crash
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which advantage does the VxCache feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. improved performance of dynamic volumes
B. hardware-independent, up-to-date remote copies of data
C. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
D. fast recovery of disk group configurations
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a best practice when installing Dymanic Multi-pathing for Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. have a single physical path to storage
B. turn off the hardware cache on external storage
C. have all physical paths to storage enabled
D. physically remove all the HBAs from the server
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is one difference between a basic disk and a dynamic disk?
A. private region
B. application data
C. volume
D. resides on a single plex
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that is a structured collection of
subdisks that represents one copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. dynamic disk
D. dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which three advantages does the Veritas Volume Replicator feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1
for Windows provide? (Select three.)
A. hardware-independent copies of data that are consistent
B. dynamic bandwidth throttling
C. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
D. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
E. replication over multiple TCP connections
Answer: ABE

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NO.12 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout where data is arranged both
sequentially and contiguously within a single plex?
A. concatenation
B. striping
C. mirroring
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows (SFW) component that represents the
available space that SFW can use to assign to volumes?
A. public region
B. private region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which advantage does the FlashSnap feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. hardware-independent, point-in-time copies of data
B. hardware-independent, synchronous remote copies of data
C. fast recovery of disk group configuration
D. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that is directly accessed by a
filesystem?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. subvolume
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which advantage is provided by the Write-order Fidelity feature of Veritas Volume Replicator in Veritas
Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. consistent secondary volumes
B. fast resynchronization of mirrored secondary volumes
C. RAID 5 logging on secondary volumes
D. fast updates to secondary volumes
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that stores information about
virtual objects?
A. private region
B. public region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which advantage is provided by the SmartMove feature in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. reduction of mirror synchronization time
B. rebuilding of redundancy in the case of a disk failure
C. automatic failover in the case of a path failure
D. consistent secondary volumes using Veritas Volume Replicator
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the smallest unit of storage in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. subdisk
B. plex
C. volume
D. partition
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which command can you use to set the read policy on a plex in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. vxvol
B. vxplex
C. vxassist
D. vxedit
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-P19
Exam Name: HP (HP-UX High Availability Using Serviceguard v18)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 What are potential single points of failure (SPOF) in an HP-UX environment? (Select two.)
A. backplane of a cell based server when two vPARs are clustered with Serviceguard over two physical
nodes
B. backplane of a cell based server when two vPARs are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
C. cellboard on a partioned node with two nPARs that are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
D. cellboard on a single-nPar node with two vPARs that are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
Answer: BD

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NO.2 A customer has a 2-node HP Serviceguard cluster running a mission critical Oracle database and a
financial application. At the end of each month the server utilization spikes with no idle CPU resources
and there is a need for additional capacity.
Which HP Virtual Server Environment offering provides additional capacity and is best in this situation?
A. Capacity Advisor
B. Instant Capacity (iCAP)
C. Integrity Virtual Machines
D. Global Workload Manager (gWLM)
E. Temporary Instant Capacity (TiCAP)
Answer: E

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NO.3 When implementing a legacy package utilizing application monitoring, which variable in the package
control script will point to the monitor script?
A. service_cmd
B. SERVICE_CMD
C. MONITOR_CMD
D. MONITOR_NAME
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statements are true regarding Serviceguard Manager version 5.01? (Select three.)
A. Serviceguard Manager is a graphical user interface for the Serviceguard product.
B. With Serviceguard Manager you can monitor, administer, and configure clusters managed by
Serviceguard.
C. With Serviceguard Manager you can run a multinode cluster which consists of both HP-UX and Linux
nodes.
D. With Serviceguard Manager you can change package-switching and node-switching flags for failover
packages.
E. With Serviceguard Manager you can install Serviceguard software product on hosts managed by HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM).
Answer: ABD

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NO.5 What are advantages of RAC cluster? (Select three.)
A. increases user scalability
B. increases database security
C. supports larger database size
D. increases hardware scalability
E. increases database availability
F. increases application scalability
G. decreases package failover time
Answer: DEF

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NO.6 Which failure scenarios are transparent to application users when the application is running as a
Serviceguard package? (Select two.)
A. A LAN interface fails on a node where no package is running.
B. A complete power outage in the computer room where the cluster is located.
C. A redundant power supply fails in the cluster node running the application package.
D. Manual application package switch because of planned downtime on the cluster node.
E. The cluster node running the application package crashes because of a memory multibit error.
Answer: AC

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NO.7 Which statement is correct concerning the difference between a local Serviceguard cluster and an
extended distance cluster (also known as a campus cluster)?
A. An extended distance cluster provides disaster tolerance across two data centers located on different
continents.
B. An extended distance cluster solution typically requires a physical data replication mechanism between
high end storage arrays.
C. An extended distance cluster solution typically uses host based disk mirroring between two computer
rooms in an IT environment.
D. An extended distance cluster is a separate product installation to implement High Availability between
two computer rooms in a IT environment.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the cmviewcl output, which statement is correct?
A. A failure of ora_lsnr will cause alien_pkg to failover.
B. A single failure of oracle9i will cause alien_pkg to failover.
C. The subnet 192.168.1.0 going down will cause alien_pkg to failover.
D. A failure of either ora_lsnr or oracle9i will cause alien_pkg to failover.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Your customer wants you to design an HA solution with HP-UX and Serviceguard that runs the
customer's Business Critical SAP production system as Serviceguard package, pkgA, and the customer's
Development SAP system as Serviceguard package, pkgB.
You design two vPars (vpar1 and vpar2) on serverA and two vPars (vpar3 and vpar4) on serverB.
What is a good design for this cluster to provide the maximum high availability? (Select two.)
A. Cluster vpar1 and vpar2 and run pkgA on these clustered vPars.
B. Cluster vpar1 and vpar3 and run pkgA on these clustered vPars.
C. Cluster vpar2 and vpar4 and run pkgB on these clustered vPars.
D. Cluster vpar3 and vpar4 and run pkgB on these clustered vPars.
Answer: BC

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NO.10 In a Serviceguard implementation for concurrent instances of an Oracle RAC Database, which type of
shared storage management can be used on all nodes in the cluster? (Select three.)
A. Cluster File System (CFS)
B. Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM)
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. Shared Logical Volume Manager (SLVM)
E. Standard Logical Volume Manager (LVM)
F. Enterprise Logical Volume Manager (ELVM)
G. Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
Answer: ADG

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NO.11 Which situations does Serviceguard provide high availability solutions for? (Select two.)
A. LAN card failure
B. application failure
C. client subnet goes down
D. poor application performance
E. failure of one of the LUN paths to shared storage
Answer: AB

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NO.12 What is the purpose of the cluster interconnect in a Serviceguard extension for Oracle RAC
implementation? (Select two.)
A. Nodes can use it for cluster heartbeat traffic.
B. Nodes coordinate the shared storage status.
C. Oracle single instances coordinate their online/offline status.
D. Oracle RAC instances coordinate the consistency between their Oracle buffer cache.
Answer: AD

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NO.13 In which situations can a local high availability solution prevent unplanned downtime? (Select two.)
A. An operator accidentially reboots a cluster node.
B. The shared storage component looses A/C power and goes down.
C. A complete data center goes down because of an environmental disaster.
D. The network communication between the cluster nodes is permanently interrupted.
E. The clustered application database becomes corrupted by installation of an application patch.
Answer: AD

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NO.14 In the context of high availability, which phrase describes Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)?
A. mean interval of time to resume a service after a failure
B. mean time a service engineer needs to repair a failed server
C. mean interval of time when the system provides service without fault
D. mean time a service engineer needs to replace a server after a failure
E. mean time a service engineer needs to arrive at the site of a failed server
Answer: A

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NO.15 In the context of high availability, which statements are true regarding split-brain syndrome? (Select
two.)
A. It can occur on a 2-node cluster.
B. It can occur on a 3-node cluster.
C. It allows different applications to simulatneously access the same disk.
D. It allows different partitions to access the same disk without knowledge of each other.
E. It is caused when two clusters initiate an application that accesses the same disk simultaneously.
F. It is caused when two equal size sub-clusters form from a single cluster without knowledge of each
other.
Answer: AF

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NO.16 Which application templates are included in the Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit (ECMT)? (Select
four.)
A. NFS
B. SAP
C. SAPDB
D. HP Tomcat
E. HP Apache
F. HP CIFS/9000
G. Oracle 9i and 10g
Answer: DEFG

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NO.17 You are asked by your management team to do a presentation and explain why your IT department
should go with the SGeRAC solution instead of the standard single-instance Oracle implementation with
Serviceguard.
Which benefits should you present? (Select two.)
A. reduces the overall cost
B. increases the security level
C. provides easier cluster management
D. reduces recovery time of a large database
E. provides the ability to add more nodes to the cluster on the fly
F. increases processing power without the need to administer separate databases
Answer: DF

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NO.18 What are potential single points of failure (SPOF) in an HP-UX system? (Select four.)
A. hard disk drive
B. operating system
C. system administrator
D. redundant power supply
E. CPU on a Uniprocessor system
F. multi-port network interface card
G. alternate link to a disk in a shared volume group
Answer: ABEF

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NO.19 When a Serviceguard package fails over in a highly available vPar environment, Workload Manager
(WLM) integrates with Serviceguard and disaster tolerant solutions by doing which process?
A. WLM creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
B. cmcld creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
C. WLM moves processor resources from one virtual partition to another.
D. cmcld moves processor resources from one virtual partition to another.
E. WLM can move a Serviceguard package from one virtual partition to another.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What are the advantages with respect to application availability for a customer using Serviceguard in
an HA environment? (Select two.)
A. Application database corruptions will be minimized.
B. An upgrade of the operating system will only require a package switch.
C. A power outage in the customer's computer room will not affect the users.
D. Rolling upgrades of the application can be performed in a Serviceguard environment.
E. A failure in a redundant power supply will only cause a package switch to the adoptive node.
Answer: BD

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NO.21 Which configurations are valid for a Serviceguard environment in combination with Integrity Virtual
machines? (Select two.)
A. Configuration 1
B. Configuration 2
C. Configuration 3
D. Configuration 4
Answer: AB

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NO.22 What does OL* (OnLine Replacement, Addition, and Deletion) provide?
A. online replacement, addtion, and deletion of vPARs
B. online replacement, addition, and deletion of PCI(-X) I/O cards
C. online replacement, addition, and deletion of cell boards in cell based systems
D. online replacement, addition, and deletion of PCI(-X) I/O cards and core I/O cards
Answer: B

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NO.23 In the context of high availability, which phrase describes Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)?
A. mean time to restart a failed service
B. mean time to repair a server after a failure
C. mean time to restart a server after a failure
D. mean time a system provides service without failure
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which components are considered potential single points of failure within a single HP-UX server?
(Select four.)
A. SAN
B. memory
C. backplane
D. DVD drive
E. LAN interfaces
F. mirrored root disks
G. system adminstrator
H. redundant power supply
I. Fibre Channel Host Bus Adapter
Answer: BCEI

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NO.25 What is the function of the lock disk or Quorum server in a Serviceguard cluster?
A. prevents split brain syndrome
B. determines which node becomes the cluster coordinator
C. ensures that quorum is present the entire time the cluster is up
D. keeps a record of volume groups that are locked in exclusive mode
Answer: A

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NO.26 An e-ticketing application based on Apache webserver for a busy tourist market experiences failures
during peak season, resulting in loss of revenues.
Which product combination implements a solution that improves availability of the e-ticketing application?
(Select two.)
A. HP Serviceguard
B. Continental Clusters
C. HP Serviceguard Extension for SAP
D. Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit
E. HP Serviceguard Extension for RAC
Answer: AD

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NO.27 Consider the following entry in the /etc/rc.config.d/cmcluster file.
AUTOSTART_CMCLD=1
Which parameter in the cluster ascii file is affected by this entry?
A. CMCLD_TIMEOUT
B. CMCLD_RUN_START
C. AUTOSTART_CMCLD
D. AUTOSTART_TIMEOUT
E. HEARTBEAT_INTERVAL
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which products offer a solution to protect from failure of a complete data center? (Select three.)
A. Metrocluster
B. Serviceguard
C. Continentalclusters
D. Extended Campus Cluster
E. Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit
Answer: ACD

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NO.29 What are the main features of OL* (OnLine Replacement, Addition, and Deletion)? (Select two.)
A. ability to replace a cell board on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
B. ability to repair a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
C. ability to online replace a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
D. ability to online remove a PCI(-X) card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
E. ability to online replace an HP-UX system that supports OL* while it is configured in a Serviceguard
cluster
F. ability to online remove a PCI(-X) LAN card and afterwards to online add a PCI(-X) FC HBA in the same
PCI(-X) slot on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
Answer: CD

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NO.30 Which statements are true regarding High Availability (HA)? (Select three.)
A. Downtime is any amount of time when the application is unavailable (planned or unplanned).
B. HA systems provide a disaster tolerant solution that allows recovery from the loss of an entire data
center.
C. Unplanned downtime is be caused by a failure of a non-redundant hardware component on a cluster
node.
D. Metrocluster and Extended Campus Cluster solutions provide the same level of protection as a local
HA solution in case of environmental disasters.
E. HA is a combination of environmental, process, software, and computing hardware enhancements that
maximize the time that the application and system are available.
F. Highly available systems typically contain data redundancy through mirroring or RAID, some kind of
backup system hardware, power outage protection, and multiple LANs.
Answer: AEF

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Exam Code: HP0-J19
Exam Name: HP (HP Storage Essentials SRM Standard Edition)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 What is required to generate the HP Storage Essentials SRM permanent license key?
A. client unique ID
B. server IP address
C. host serial number
D. client install checksum
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which security types determine if you can modify elements within HP Storage Essentials SRM?
(Select two.)
A. role-based
B. user-based
C. zone-based
D. permission-based
E. organization-based
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 HP Storage Essentials SRM Event Manager indicates several CIM_ERR_FAILED messages for
managed hosts. What is the most probable cause of this error?
A. WMI is not running.
B. CIM Extension is not functioning.
C. The firewall is preventing a connection.
D. The management server is not functioning.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which items are backed up during a database export? (Select three.)
A. appiq.log
B. CIMOM.log
C. tnsnames.ora
D. CIM repository
E. database schema
F. jboss configuration files
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 What do the capacity and utilization reports display?
A. host performance - CPU and memory usage
B. device utilization - a centralized view of capacity usage per system
C. file utilization - frequently used files and unused files which may be archived to tape or optical
media
D. storage utilization - thresholds set by administrators that provide notification when additional
storage capacity must be added
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which actions are required to reinitialize the HP Storage Essentials SRM database? (Select
three.)
A. Stop the AppStorManager Service.
B. Stop the AppWBEMManager Service.
C. Click the Create new database button.
D. Click the Re-initialize the Database button.
E. Enter the password for the SYSTEM account.
F. Enter the password for the DB_SYSTEM_USER account.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.7 In which authentication mode must a Microsoft SQL server database be to enable monitoring
and management from HP Storage Essentials SRM?
A. single
B. Windows
C. SQL server
D. mixed-mode
Answer: D

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NO.8 You set up event filtering in HP Systems Insight Manager. What is the result?
A. Events that do not pass the filter are lost.
B. Events that pass the filter trigger a notification.
C. Events that pass the filter are indicated by a filter symbol.
D. Events that do not pass the filter are hidden, but can be recalled.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are unable to discover Microsoft Exchange servers in HP Storage Essentials. What is the
most probable cause?
A. There is an incorrect static IP address.
B. There is an incompatible version of Exchange Server.
C. SMTP is not running and this is affecting Active Directory.
D. Stale DNS records are affecting Active Directory lookups.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-M22
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Service Manager Software)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which application in Service Manager stores ITIL's configuration items?
A. Incident Management
B. Change Management
C. Release Management
D. Configuration Management
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where are Service Manager localized notifications set up?
A. rules wizard
B. macro engine
C. message class D. notification engine
Answer: D

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NO.3 How can new fields be added to the RDBMS when the Service Manager user does not have alter
rights to the database? (Select two.)
A. by mapping the new fields to a null table
B. by adding the field to the dbdict and clicking on SM Alters
C. by adding the fields to the RDBMS and having Service Manager detect them
D. by supplying the DDL from the Alter dialog box to the Database Administrator
Answer: CD

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NO.4 Which file contains information on self-service license usage?
A. sc.log
B. sm.log
C. sm.alert.log
D. system.startup
Answer: B

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NO.5 What must all Service Manager communications to the RDBMS go through?
A. the client
B. the web tier
C. the application server
D. the web services interface
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which data type typically represents the Service Manager character data type on the RDBMS?
A. text
B. float
C. varchar
D. Boolean
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is a valid database choice for Service Manager?
A. Service Manager proprietary database, P4
B. any RDBMS that supplies an ODBC connection
C. MS SQL Server that can be used with any application server
D. MS SQL Server that can only be used with a Windows-based application server
Answer: D

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NO.8 To which file are debugging parameters added?
A. sm.ini
B. sm.log
C. sm.cfg
D. System-Wide Information Record
Answer: A

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NO.9 How many threads does a Service Manager user establish on the RDBMS?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which debugger is available from the Service Manager Windows client? (Select two.)
A. RAD Debugger
B. Advanced Debugger
C. JavaScript Debugger
D. Web Client Debugger
Answer: AB

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NO.11 Which statement is true about deploying the Windows client?
A. It should never be deployed.
B. There is no Windows client to deploy.
C. It should be deployed to perform tailoring.
D. It should be deployed to accomplish daily operation tasks.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which RDBMS running on UNIX is compatible with Service Manager?
A. P4
B. Oracle 10
C. Sybase 12.5
D. SQL Server 2005
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which file contains debugging information?
A. sm.log
B. debug.log
C. send.log
D. sm.alert.log
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which access method is used to connect to the SQL Server Database from Service Manager?
A. web services
B. SQL Server API
C. SQL Server client
D. ODBC driver for SQL Server
Answer: D

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NO.15 Where are RDBMS permissions controlled?
A. in LDAP
B. in the RDBMS
C. in the Service Manager client
D. in the Service Manager server
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which startup parameter is required to connect Service Manager to its RDBMS?
A. sqllogin
B. sqldebug
C. sqlconnect
D. sqlfetchrows
Answer: A

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NO.17 What determines case sensitivity in Service Manager?
A. case setting in the sm.ini
B. case setting of the DBDICT utility
C. database (RDBMS) configuration settings D. case sensitivity settings in the System-Wide Information
Record
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which application in Service Manager is associated with ITIL v2 Definitive Software Library (DSL)?
A. Project Management
B. Release Management
C. Problem Management
D. Service Lifecycle Management
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is used as a condition for a menu or a display option that makes an option only available to
system administrators?
A. index($ucapex,"SysAdmin")=0
B. index("SysAdmin",$lo.ucapex)>0
C. index("SysAdmin",$lo.ucapex)=0
D. index($lo.ucapex,"SysAdmin")>0
Answer: B

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NO.20 For what is Service Manager considered an authoritative source?
A. contact data
B. location data
C. incident data
D. email addresses
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-754
Exam Name: HP (HP OpenView Operations I (7.x) UNIX )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 139 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 To correctly configure the proxy setting before calling URLs in the embedded web
browser of the Java GUI __________.
A. use the Embedded Web Browser Setting dialog box
B. do nothing. The correct flag is set by default for all platforms
C. change the flag in the file /opt/OV/www/htdocs/ito_op/embedded_web
D. do nothing if the NCSA-Apache web server is used. It is automatically installed and
configured with the OVO installation
Answer: A

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NO.2 The embedded performance component collects basic metrics and stores them. The
values of these metrics are stored______ .
A. in the Oracle database
B. on the management server in a proprietary data store
C. in an xml file on the managed node
D. in a proprietary database on the managed node
Answer: D

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NO.3 All message attributes can be used as filter criteria for checking incoming messages.
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. An incoming message must have the same values for all attributes that are specified in
a condition to create a match. Regarding message attributes the specified attributes are
checked as AND conditions.
B. If an attribute is NOT specified, the filter ignores this attribute in the incoming
messages and compares only the other attributes.
C. If more than one value is specified for an attribute, only one of the values must match.
The specified values within one attribute are checked as OR conditions.
D. When defining conditions for a log file encapsulator template, the user needs to
specify only the message text pattern and the message group,
Answer: D

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NO.4 The hostname for a managed node has changed. Will OVO automatically detect
this?
A. Yes, OVO internally maps the new hostname to the old hostname as stored in the
OVO database. This is because the IP address is used as a unique identifier.
B. No, if the hostname or the IP address of a managed node has been modified, this
change also needs to be made in OVO.
C. Yes, but only new messages from these hosts will be intercepted. You must change the
hostname in the Modify Node window before you distribute templates or install a new
OVO agent version on that managed node.
D. No, OVO will only detect the change after both the Management Server processes and
Managed Node processes have been stopped and restarted.
Answer: B

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NO.5 The embedded performance component collects basic metrics on the managed node.
The amount of free disk space recommended for the database used to store these
metrics is ______Mb.
A. 10
B. 25
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.6 The OpenView Operations Agent collects performance metrics with the help of the
coda process. This coda process is_______.
A. the last release of the OV Performance Agent integrated into the OVO agent
B. a replacement for the OV Performance Agent that must be purchased separately
C. an add-on module that has to be installed on the top of the OVO agent
D. a component included as part of the OVO agent
Answer: D

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NO.7 From the Java GUI, it is NOT possible to print_________
A. message browser contents.
B. message properties.
C. application definitions.
D. application output.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Can an operator modify the criticality of a message in the ITO browser?
A. Yes, but they must first own the message.
B. Yes, but only using the JAVA GUI.
C. Yes, but only if nobody else owns the message.
D. Yes, they can perform the change regardless of the type of GUI and whether the
message is owned or not.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the meaning of Column U in the Message Browser?
A. unknown severity
B. unknown event type
C. unmatched condition
Answer: C

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NO.10 How can a user change a message condition?
A. An operator selects Window->Message Source Templates and selects a template in a
group, double clicks on the template and then modifies the conditions.
B. An operator selects the affected node(s) in the Managed Nodes submap, then uses the
mouse pop-up menu to get to the option Modify Conditions.
C. The administrator or a template administrator opens the window Message Source
Templates, selects a template in a group, double clicks on the template and then modifies
the conditions.
D. The various users send messages to the OpenView Operations Administrator via the
Actions ->Inform Administrator menu. The administrator changes the templates based on
the requests.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What are three ways you can open a message browser to show only messages from a
certain node? Choose 3 that apply.
A. Select the node in any ovw submap (e.g. Managed Nodes window, Node Bank, Node
Group Bank) and then select Actions->View Browser.
B. Select the node in any ovw submap and then from the menu bar select
View->Message of Selected Symbols in the Message Browser menu bar.
C. Open the Browser view setting dialog from the Message Browser menu bar by
View->Some...and enter the node name in the corresponding selection field.
D. Double-click the node in any ovw submap and then double-click the browser icon.
E. Select the node in any ovw submap and then open the Browser View setting dialog
from the Message browser menu bar by View->Some...and load the node name by
pressing "Get selected symbol".
Answer: B, C, E

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NO.12 Within the Java GUI, how do you open a Filter Browser to only show OVO
messages from a specific node?
A. Select the node in the explorer-like tree on the left hand side, press the right mouse
button and select "Filter Active Message".
B. Highlight the node and then select from the menu bar View->Some. In this case, it will
automatically open the appropriate Filter Browser.
C. Select from the menu bar Show->Filtering->Modify Filter and select the appropriate
node name presented in the list box.
D. Double-click the node in the explorer-like tree on the left hand side and then select
"Show Active Messages" from the pop-up window.
Answer: A

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NO.13 When the OVO agent is started, the embedded performance component starts
collecting metrics automatically on the managed node. What is the best way to
disable AND de-register the embedded performance component?
A. kill coda
B. opcagt -stop coda
C. opcsubagt -disable
D. opcagt -stop -id 12
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following statements regarding history download is TRUE? Choose
one answer.
A. New filtering criteria for the history download are NOT available for selection from
the GUI.
B. You can specify the option -copy to keep the history messages in the database when
using opchistdwn.
C. You can selectively upload data from files using opchistupld+filter criteria.
D. It is NOT possible to specify exclusions (e.g. -not_node).
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which three of the following are management aspects which are covered by
OpenView Operations? Choose 3 that apply.
A. Print Management
B. Operations Management
C. Backup Management
D. Integrated Network & System Management
E. Management by Exception
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.16 Where can the OVO configuration data be stored?
A. ISAM files
B. Oracle RDBMS
C. Ingres RDBMS
D. Sybase RDBMS
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which three of the following can be monitored by OpenView Operations agents?
Choose 3 that apply.
A. application logfiles
B. Databases processes
C. DMI events
D. MPE/iX Console Messages
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.18 The Message Browser entries can be sorted within the Java GUI by_
A. the OVO Administrator configuring the appropriate criteria when creating/modifying
the user within the Motif GUI.
B. specifying the sorting criteria in the view browser dialog.
C. specifying the sorting criteria in the Edit -> Preferences window.
D. clicking on the appropriate column heading to change sorting sequence from
ascending to descending or vice versa.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which two tools can be used to test OVO pattern matching? Choose 2 that apply.
A. opcsrvtst
B. opcmomchk
C. Use the test option in the template screen of the OVO GUI.
D. opcconfig
E. opcpat
Answer: C, E

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NO.20 How can an operator email messages from the message browser to the OpenView
Operations administrator?
A. Drag and drop directly from the browser to an email application.
B. Highlight the opc_adm icon and use Edit->Copy and Edit->Paste in the message
browser.
C. Run the opc_msgdump command, cut out the relevant messages from the file and
paste into an email application.
D. Save the messages into a file and mail the file or attach it to an outgoing mail
message.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-714
Exam Name: HP (HP OpenView Storage Area Manager Fundamentals)
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Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 To which three file formats can HP OpenView Storage Accountant customer billing
information be exported? (Choose three.)
A. .txt
B. .csv
C. .xml
D. .doc
E. .html
Answer: B.C.E

NO.2 Why is it important to make sure that LUNs are physically and logically to an
organization by adding them to an account?
A. Te LUNs will not show up as assigned
B. LUNs will be removed from the pool of available resources.
C. Organizations can be charged for LUNs that they cannot use.
D. Usage information will be collected and no organization will be charged.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Exhibit, Mapped Devices (Physical Map)
What are two possible causes for the status change of the HP AstorageWorks Virtual
Array on the MAP shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. The array is powered off.
B. A disk has failed in the array.
C. One of the redundant controllers has failed.
D. One of he redundant controllers has failed
E. The only host connected to the array is turned off.
Answer: A.E

NO.4 Application links in HP OpenView Storage Area Manager can be linked to ____.(Choose
three.)
A. a device class
B. the Tools Menu
C. a specific device
D. the Resource tree
E. the Application tree
Answer: A.B.C

NO.5 Which fibre channel switch display inactive zones in HP OpenView Storage Area
Manager?
A. Cisco
B. McData
C. Brocade
D. All switches
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about adding a new license to HP OpenView Storage Area
Manager? (Choose two.)
A. it requires an HP order number.
B. It requires an internet connection
C. It uses the Auto Pass application.
D. It can be accomplished from any management client.
Answer: A.C

NO.7 What is the purpose of a passphrase?
A. is used by Device Plug-ins (DPI) to obtain information about the device
B. allows communication of third-party applications to the HP OpenView SAM Bridge service
C. allows communication between the management server and management clients that use
DHCP
D. authorizes communication between the management server and manager-of-Managers (MoM)
clients
Answer: A

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NO.8 Organization are common to which two HP OpenView Storage Area Manager
applications? (Choose two.)
A. Storage Builder
B. Storage Allocator
C. Storage Optimizer
D. Storage Accountant
E. Storage Node Manager
Answer: A.D

NO.9 Which three features are provided by the HP Open View Storage Area Manager device
maps? (Choose three.)
A. displays integration status with other applications
B. provides graphical display of device and link status
C. provide charting capabilities for reporting on devices
D. displays collections of discovered devices in a topology
E. provides a launching point for device management applications
Answer: B.D.E

NO.10 How can passphrases be entered?
A. right-click the device and select Configure Passphrases
B. from the Tools Configuration Menu, select Configure Passphrases
C. from th propertied page for device, select Configure Passphrases
D. edit the passphrases cfg file and enter the device name and passphrase
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is required to associate a price to a LUN in HP OpenView Storage Accountant?
A. assign the LUN and the to an account
B. create a service level and add the LUN to an account
C. create a billing cycle with a price associated with the LUN
D. create a service level and assign the LUN to the service level
Answer: D

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NO.12 How can HP OpenView Storage Allocator be activated? (Choose three.)
A. locally via CD-ROM
B. using the HP Openview Storage Allocator Setup Assistant
C. using the HP Openview Storage Allocator Activation Wizard
D. using the HP Open view Storage area Manager Setup Assistan
E. using the HP Open view Storage area Manager Agent Activation Wizard
Answer: A.C.D

NO.13 The HP OpenViwe Storage Area Manager Setup Assistant is available ____.
A. from the Tools Menu within the management client
B. from the command line on the management server
C. automatically, immediately after management server installation
D. automatically, after the management server is rebooted after installation
Answer: C

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NO.14 In order for HP Open View Storage Area Manaher to discover an HP Storage Works EVA
Array, an entry is needed in the ___panel of the Configuration window.
A. Proxy Devices
B. Management Appliances
C. Additional Storage Arrays
D. SNMP Discovery Ranges
Answer: A

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NO.15 From the HP OpenView Storage Area Manager Custom Setup screen, you can select the
___.(Choose three.)
A. OS depots to install
B. Feature (applications) to install
C. Directory to install OS depot files
D. Directory to install hostagent files
E. Directory to install the management server files
Answer: A.B.E

NO.16 What is recommended as an enhancement to HP OpenView Storage Allocater security
because it prevents the accidental attachment of a host without a storage
Allocater-activated Host Agent?
A. soft zoning
B. hard zoning
C. secure manager
D. individual port control
Answer: A

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NO.17 When using associated LUN groups. If a requested assignment is unsuccessful for any
LUN in the group. When happens to the operation?
A. if fails for the entire group.
B. If fails for the individul logical unit.
C. It continues with an error message.
D. It prompt the user to continue or roll back the assignment.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which two statements about the HP OpenView Storage Allocator Special Unassign
command are true? (Choose two.)
A. when the command runs. It will try a regular unassignment first.
B. when the command runs. All affected hosts will be rebooted automatically
C. when the command runs. An event will be generated for each host that needs to be rebooted.
D. The Special Unassign command is available for all HP OpenView Storage Allocator
supported host operating systems.
Answer: A.C

NO.19 HP Open View Storage Aliocater Associated LUN Groups assigns____.
A. LUNs individually
B. LUNs to multiple hosts
C. Several LUNs as a unit
D. Individual LUNs from within the group
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about HP OpenView Storage Area manager Arbitrary
folders? (Choose two.)
A. they support nesting
B. they are visible from the Applications tree
C. they enable thresholds to be set on groups of resources
D. they are exclusive (a member can only belong to one folder).
Answer: A.D

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