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Exam Code: 1Y0-740
Exam Name: Citrix (Citrix WANScaler 4.2: Administration Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 95 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-03

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NO.1 An administrator is implementing a WANScaler appliance in WCCP mode in a single LAN,
single WAN implementation. What is the minimum number of Ethernet cables required to set up
the WANScaler appliance on the local LAN?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer:A

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NO.2 The __________ is where the set of rules that map accelerated subnets to appliances is created
and the __________ is what examines the rules. (Choose the correct option to complete the
sentence.)
A.Client; Controller
B.Client; Appliance
C.Controller; Client
D.Controller; Appliance
Answer:C

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NO.3 Which TCP variant would be appropriate in an environment where a site is connected to multiple
WAN links, each of which has no guaranteed bandwidth?
A.Inline
B.Variable
C.Softboost
D.Hardboost
E.Full bandwidth
Answer:C

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NO.4 A WANScaler implementation of QoS __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the
sentence.)
A.should be used with softboost only
B.operates on accelerated traffic only
C.is incompatible with other QoS solutions
D.is a sender and receiver-side QoS system
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which two techniques are used to accelerate and optimize CIFS traffic across high latency
links in a WANScaler appliance implementation? (Choose two.)
A.Zero locking
B.File read ahead
C.History analysis
D.Recursive file opens
E.Pre-fetching metadata
Answer:B E

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NO.6 Which three operating parameters are defined in the TCP header of a packet and exchanged
during the autoconfiguration process? (Choose three.)
A.Bandwidth limits
B.Acceleration mode
C.Service class rules
D.Compression mode
E.Compression history
Answer:A B D

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NO.7 An administrator implementing WANScaler appliances in an appliance only environment has
been instructed by the IT Manager to not bring down the network while installing the WANScaler
appliances. In which two deployment modes could the administrator implement the WANScaler
appliances to meet the stated requirements? (Choose two.)
A.Inline
B.WCCP
C.Redirector
D.Virtual inline
Answer:B D

Citrix   1Y0-740   1Y0-740

NO.8 Scenario: An administrator is instructed to implement two WANScaler appliances in high
availability mode for a virtual inline deployment. In this environment, the switches and routers are
already connected. What is the minimum number of Ethernet cables required to set up the
WANScaler appliances in a single LAN, single WAN deployment?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer:B

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NO.9 Scenario: An administrator would like to implement five WANScaler appliances in an
environment. Four of the appliances are deployed in the branch offices and one in the data center.
Each office has a single circuit to the data center. All appliances will be implemented in inline
mode. The administrator wants to leverage the automatic bandwidth allocation feature. The
administrator has decided that WANScaler QoS will not be implemented in this environment.
Which physical WANScaler topology will be appropriate for this implementation?
A.Mesh
B.Full Mesh
C.Point-to-point
D.Hub-and-spoke
Answer:D

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NO.10 Scenario: A system administrator deployed a WANScaler 8500 appliance at one branch office
and a WANScaler 8800 appliance at the headquarters office. Given the nature of the data transfers
that are routinely used between the two offices (including database replication, multiple file
transfers and directory synchronization), the administrator decides to use disk-based
compression. After several days of testing, the administrator could not explain why the
compression ratio was below the expected level. What are four possible reasons why the
compression ratio was below the expected level? (Choose four.)
A.Compression ratios are data-dependent.
B.The WANScaler is not suited for compressing CIFS traffic.
C.File types with little to no redundancy will not compress well.
D.WANScaler appliances must be deployed as matched pairs.
E.Encryption of the data has a negative effect on compressibility.
F.Compressibility of data is affected by the application protocol used.
G.The WANScaler 8500 appliance does not support disk-based compression.
Answer:A C E F

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NO.11 During the TCP handshake process, the Maximum Segment Size (MSS) of a packet is reduced
in order to __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A.increase interactive performance
B.compress the traffic across the WAN
C.allow room in the packet header for custom WANScaler options
D.indicate the existence of a WANScaler appliance to other WANScaler appliances across the WAN
Answer:C

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NO.12 Scenario: An administrator is implementing a WANScaler appliance in an environment where the
majority of the traffic types are candidates for acceleration. There is an undetermined amount of
critical unaccelerated traffic that needs to be considered. Which two options should the
administrator implement to ensure that unaccelerated network traffic types are not suppressed in
this environment? (Choose two.)
A.Select hardboost.
B.Select partial bandwidth.
C.Fix the bandwidth limit to 50%.
D.Set the initial bandwidth to 90%.
Answer:B D

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NO.13 An administrator is implementing WANScaler appliances in an environment. The administrator
has been instructed to configure WANScaler appliances to accelerate traffic. What are three types
of traffic that can be accelerated by WANScaler appliances? (Choose three.)
A.SIP
B.FTP
C.NFS
D.CIFS
E.TFTP
Answer:B C D

Citrix   1Y0-740   1Y0-740   1Y0-740

NO.14 In a high availability pair, configuration changes should be made using which IP address?
A.Virtual IP address
B.Subnet IP address
C.WANScaler IP address
D.Management IP address
Answer:A

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NO.15 Scenario: An administrator is implementing a WANScaler appliance in the branch office of a
telemarketing environment. Most of the traffic in this environment is voice over IP based. However,
the billing and collections team needs access to web servers in the corporate office. Users in this
environment have complained that it takes too long for them to access data in the morning,
between 9:00 AM and 10:30 AM. Coincidentally, this is when most of the billing and collections
employees begin their day. Which traffic type could the administrator accelerate in this
environment?
A.FTP
B.UDP
C.HTTP
D.Telnet
Answer:C

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NO.16 An administrator would like to implement a WANScaler appliance as depicted in the attached
diagram. Click the 'Exhibit' button to view the diagram. In which deployment mode will the
WANScaler appliance be implemented in this environment?
A.Inline
B.WCCP
C.Point-to-point
D.Virtual inline with policy-based routing
Answer:D

Citrix   1Y0-740   1Y0-740

NO.17 Which two statements are true regarding protocol acceleration? (Choose two.)
A.VoIP optimization is an indirect benefit of other optimizations of the WANScaler.
B.All HTTP traffic is enhanced by applying QoS on cascading style sheets and pages that use Java
scripts.
C.IPSec key exchange algorithms are adjusted with the Flow-Control Engine and their payloads are
compressed.
D.FTP traffic is enhanced by the ability of the WANScaler appliance to keep track of which files have been
previously transferred.
E.Any TCP information exchanged by two WANScaler appliances where the bit patterns exchanged
match previous traffic can be eligible for multi-level compression.
Answer:A E

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NO.18 What should an administrator do to ensure that traffic is sent to the desired appliance when
configuring WANScaler appliances in group mode?
A.Turn one of the appliances off in the group mode.
B.Assign the virtual IP address to the primary appliance.
C.Create forwarding rules that use explicit IP addresses.
D.Create a service class policy to manage the distribution of traffic.
Answer:C

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NO.19 When data is compressed before passing through a WANScaler appliance, it __________.
(Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A.is not encrypted
B.is still compressed
C.is passed through as unaccelerated traffic
D.is decompressed and recompressed using proprietary algorithms
Answer:B

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NO.20 Scenario: An administrator designing a WANScaler implementation would like the
implementation to be set up based on the following considerations: 1.The data center supports
multiple branch offices, of which only one has a WANScaler appliance. 2.The branch office
WANScaler appliance should connect directly to the WAN router for the branch office. 3.The
headquarters WANScaler appliance should connect directly to the WAN router for the
headquarters. 4.All traffic from the branch office to servers at the headquarters should flow
through the branch office WANScaler appliance. Which WANScaler deployment topology should
be used in this type of implementation?
A.Star
B.Token Ring
C.Point-to-point
D.Hub-and-spoke
Answer:C

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Exam Code: 1Y0-A21
Exam Name: Citrix (Basic Administration for Citrix NetScaler 9.2)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-03

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NO.1 Scenario: An administrator needs to configure a NetScaler device so that a set of back-end servers in a
LAN can initiate connections to the Internet. ACLs are configured in this environment. What must the
administrator configure to meet the needs of this scenario?
A. INAT on the servers in the LAN
B. RNAT for the destination IP addresses
C. NAT on the router to the NetScaler device
D. RNAT for the subnet that includes the LAN IP addresses
E. RNAT on the virtual servers bound to the servers in the LAN
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which IP address type must be unique to each NetScaler in an HA pair?
A. MIP
B. NSIP
C. SNIP
D. Load balancing VIP
Answer: B

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NO.3 Scenario: A customer has two datacenters in geographically dispersed locations, both serving content
for a web-based application. Content for both datacenters should always be available.
Which method should an administrator use to make content from both datacenters available at all times?
A. HA
B. GSLB
C. Content switching
D. Backup load balancing virtual servers
Answer: B

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NO.4 Scenario: A company has contracts with multiple ISPs and would like to use all of them for Internet
connections although some ISP routers are faster than others. The company also plans to use a
NetScaler system for load balancing and failover.
What can an administrator configure to ensure that all ISP connections are being used while avoiding
retransmission or out-of-order packets in this environment?
A. Multiple VLANs with Ingress rules
B. Link load balancing with destination IP-based persistence
C. Round robin load balancing with reverse RNAT configured
D. A load balancing policy with the appropriate preferred IP and preferred port parameters configured
Answer: B

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NO.5 Scenario: A customer has an HA pair configured and is making interface configuration changes on the
primary node. However, the administrator notices that the changes are NOT being propagated to the
secondary node.
What is the reason for this behavior?
A. Propagation is not enabled.
B. HA pair licensing is missing.
C. Propagation is enabled, but synchronization is disabled.
D. Interface configuration changes must be performed on each node.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Scenario: A network administrator needs to configure VLANs on a NetScaler to support multiple
networks. The NetScaler is connected through interface 1/1 to a switch port where VLAN10 is configured.
This NetScaler is also connected through interface 1/2 to a switch port that is configured for VLAN20.
Given this scenario, which two steps does the administrator need to take to configure the NetScaler for
VLAN10? (Choose two.)
A. add vlan 10
B. set vlan 10 -ifnum 1/1
C. bind vlan 10 -ifnum 1/2
D. bind vlan 10 -ifnum 1/1
E. bind vlan 10 -ifnum 1/1 -tagged
Answer: A, D

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NO.7 In which two ways could an administrator configure a NetScaler system to allow a Web server log to
record the original client IP addresses for incoming traffic? (Choose two.)
A. USIP
B. INAT
C. USNIP
D. Edge mode
E. Client IP insertion
Answer: A, E

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NO.8 An administrator needs to configure a NetScaler system to dynamically advertise virtual IP addresses,
directly connected routes and static routes to the upstream routers.
What must the administrator ensure is configured on the NetScaler system for this environment?
A. RNAT
B. L3 mode
C. Static Routes
D. Health Check monitor
E. Route Health Injection (RHI)
Answer: E

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NO.9 In which manner can an administrator configure a NetScaler device so that it can load balance external
DNS servers.?
A. Configure as an ADNS.
B. Configure CNAME records.
C. Configure as a DNS proxy.
D. Configure as an End resolver.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Scenario: An administrator is working with a Citrix consultant to architect and implement a NetScaler
solution. They plan to use GSLB and DNS views in the environment.
In which two manners can the administrator configure the NetScaler system to be able to configure DNS
views that support GSLB records? (Choose two.)
A. Configure as an ADNS.
B. Configure as a DNS proxy.
C. Configure CNAME records.
D. Configure as an End resolver.
Answer: A, B

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NO.11 Scenario: An administrator is managing a network environment that contains five datacenters, all of
which are in different areas of the same country. The administrator plans to configure the NetScaler
system to load balance the datacenters so that they can be used for disaster recovery.
How should the administrator configure the NetScaler system for disaster recovery and to optimize the
user experience?
A. Enable HA and use cache load balancing.
B. Enable HA and use server load balancing.
C. Enable GSLB and use the proximity method.
D. Enable GSLB and use the round robin method.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Scenario: A financial company needs to maintain end-to-end security in network traffic. The company
also requires that an administrator reduce the CPU levels for back-end servers in their environment
because it requires end-to-end security.
Which setting on the SSL virtual server reduces CPU utilization on the back-end?
A. SSLv3
B. SSL Redirect
C. SSL Session Reuse
D. SSL Client Certificates
Answer: C

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NO.13 Scenario: A company has contracts with multiple ISPs and would like to use all of them for Internet
connections. The company also plans to use a NetScaler system for load balancing and failover.
What can an administrator configure to ensure that all ISP connections are being used and return traffic
maintains the same path as the inbound traffic in this environment?
A. Round robin load balancing with INAT configured
B. Link load balancing with RNAT and USNIP enabled
C. Multiple VLANs with Ingress rules and USIP enabled
D. A load balancing policy with the appropriate preferred IP and preferred port parameters configured
Answer: B

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NO.14 A network administrator wants to ensure that connection multiplexing is enabled for all client
connections that hit a virtual server. Which service type should the administrator select to enable
connection multiplexing?
A. SSL
B. FTP
C. TCP
D. HTTP
Answer: D

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NO.15 Scenario: A network administrator needs to configure routing on a NetScaler appliance. The NetScaler
is in a DMZ whose gateway is 10.54.80.1/24. There are no configured routes on the NetScaler.
Given this topology, which is the appropriate routing configuration for the NetScaler?
A. set default route 10.54.80.1
B. add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.54.80.1
C. set default route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.54.80.1
D. add route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 10.54.80.1
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 156-215
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Security Administration NGX)
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Total Q&A: 161 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-03

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NO.1 . After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on
your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to that machine are being dropped in the due
anti-spoofing protections.
Which of the following is the most likely cause
A . The Global Properties setting "Translate destination on client side" is checked. The topology on the
DMZ interface is set to "Internal Network defined by IP and Mask". Uncheck the Global Properties setting
"Translate destination on client side".
B . The Global Properties setting "Translate destination on client side" is unchecked. The topology on the
DMZ interface is set to "Internal Network defined by IP and Mask". Check the Global Properties setting
"Translate destination on client side".
C . The Global Properties setting "Translate destination on client side" is unchecked. The topology on the
external interface is set to "Others +". Change topology to "External"
D . The Global Properties setting "Translate destination on client side" is checked. The topology on the
external interface is set to "External". Change topology to "Others +".
Answer : B

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workstations. Which authentication method should you use?
A . User Authentication
B . SecureID Authentication
C . Client Authentication
D . LDAP Authentication
Answer : A

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NO.3 Which type of VPN-1 NGX Security Server does not provide User Authentication?
A . HTTP Security Server
B . SMTP Security Server
C . HTTPS Security Server
D . NNTP Security Server
Answer : B

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NO.4 . Assuming the appropriate SmartView Monitor settings have been selected in SmartDashboard, how
do you use SmartView Monitor to compile data for packet size distribution for your company's Internet
activity during production hours? By:
A . selecting the "Traffic" view in SmartView Monitor to generate graphs showing the packet sizes.
B . selecting the "Tunnels" view, and generating a report on the statistics
C . configuring a Suspicious Activity Rule which triggers an alert when large packets pass through the
Gateway
D . viewing total packets passed through the Security Gateway
Answer : A

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NO.5 . All VPN-1 NGX Security Servers can perform User authentication with the exception of one. Which of
the Security Servers cannot perform User authentication?
A . FTP
B . HTTP
C . SMTP
D . RLOGIN
Answer : C

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NO.6 . What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?
A . Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor.
B . Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
C . Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D . Place a static route on the firewall from the valid IP address to the internal web server.
Answer : A

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NO.7 . What do you use to view a VPN-1 NGX Security Gateway's status, including CPU use, amount of
virtual memory, percent of free hard-disk space, and version?
A . SmartUpdate
B . SmartView Monitor
C . SmartView Tracker
D . SmartView Status
Answer : B

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NO.8 . What do you configure to launch an application when certain traffic goes through certain rules?
A . SNMP trap alert script
B . User-defined alert script
C . Custom scripts cannot be executed through alert scripts.
D . Pop-up alert script
Answer : B

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NO.9 . Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you have
created an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Why?
A . Anna has forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.
B . Users must use SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.
C . Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.
D . Anna checked the "cache password on desktop" option in Global Properties.
Answer : C

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NO.10 . In SmartDashboard, you configure 45 MB as the required free hard-disk space to accommodate logs.
What can you do to keep old log files, when free space falls below 45 MB?
A . Do nothing. The SmartCenter Server archives old logs to another directory.
B . Use FTP to send the logs to another server.
C . Use the fwm logexport command to export the old log files to other location.
D . Define a secondary SmartCenter Server as a log server, to transfer the old logs.
Answer : B

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NO.11 . VPN-1 NGX uses ___________ to retrieve the Interface Name, IP Address, and Network Mask when
an administrator clicks the GET button in the Interfaces tab of an Externally Managed VPN Gateway
object.
A . ioctl
B . Control Connection
C . SNMP
D . URI
Answer : C

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NO.12 . You create implicit and explicit rules for the following network. The group object "internal-networks"
includes networks 10.10.10.0 and 10.10.20.0. Assume "Accept ICMP requests" is enabled as before last
in the Global Properties.
A . dropped by rule 2, the Cleanup Rule.
B . dropped by the last implicit rule.
C . dropped by rule 0.
D . accepted by rule 1.
Answer : D

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NO.13 . Larry is the Security Administrator for the CodeMore software-development company. To isolate the
corporate network from the developers' network, Larry installs an internal Security Gateway. Larry wants
to optimize the performance of this Gateway.
Which of the following actions is most likely to improve the Gateway's performance?
A . Remove unused Security Policies from Policy Packages.
B . Use domain objects in rules, where possible.
C . Clear all Global Properties check boxes, and use explicit rules.
D . Put the least-used rules at the top of the Rule Base.
Answer : A

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NO.14 . You have blocked an IP address via the Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker. How can you
see the addresses you have blocked?
A . Run fw sam M ij all on the gateway.
B . Run fwm blocked_view.
C . In SmartView Status click the Blocked Intruder tab.
D . In SmartView Tracker, click the Active tab, and the actively blocked connections display.
Answer : A

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NO.15 . When you find a suspicious connection from a problematic host, you want to block everything from
that whole network, not just the host. You want to block this for an hour, but you do not want to add any
rules to the Rule Base. How do you achieve this?
A . Create a "FW SAM" rule in SmartView Monitor.
B . Create a "FW SAM" rule in SmartView Tracker > Tools menu.
C . Select "block intruder" from the Tools menu in the SmartView Tracker.
D . Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor.
Answer : D

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NO.16 . There is a Web server behind your perimeter Security Gateway. You need to protect the server from
network attackers, who create scripts that force your Web server to send user credentials or identities to
other Web servers. Which box do you check in the SmartDashboard Web Intelligence tab?
A . Command Injection protection
B . SQL Injection protection
C . HTTP protocol inspection protection
D . Cross Site Scripting protection
Answer : D

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NO.17 . Your online bookstore has customers connecting to a variety of Web servers to place or change
orders, and check order status.
You ran penetration tests through the Security Gateway, to determine if the Web servers were protected
from a recent series of cross-site scripting attacks.
The penetration testing indicated the Web servers were still vulnerable.
You have enabled every protection in the Web Intelligence branch, configured the protections to apply to
all HTTP traffic, and installed the Security Policy.
What else might you do to reduce the vulnerability?
A . Check the "Products > Web Server" box on the host node objects representing your Web servers.
B . The penetration software you are using is malfunctioning and is reporting a false-positive.
C . Configure a URI to strip Script tags from HTTP requests, and use it in a rule allowing HTTP traffic to
the web servers.
D . Configure the Security Gateway protecting the Web servers as a Web server.
Answer : C

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NO.18 . MegaCorp's security infrastructure separates Security Gateways geographically. You must request a
central license for one remote Security Gateway. You must request a central license:
A . using the remote Gateway's IP address. Attach the license to the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate.
B . using your SmartCenter Server's IP address. Attach the license to the remote Gateway via
SmartUpdate.
C . using the remote Gateway's IP address. Apply the license locally with the cplic put command.
D . for the Gateways' IP addresses. Apply the licenses on the SmartCenter Server with the cprlic put
command.
Answer : B

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NO.19 . You are working in a large hospital, together with three other Security Administrators. How do you
use SmartConsole to check changes to rules or object properties other administrators made?:
A . Eventia Monitor
B . Eventia Tracker
C . SmartView Tracker
D . SmartView Monitor
Answer : C

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NO.20 . Which VPN-1 NGX feature or command allows Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of
the Security Policy without changing object configurations?
A . fwm dbexport/fwm dbimport
B . Database Revision Control
C . Policy Package management
D . upgrade_export/upgrade_import
Answer : C

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Exam Code: LOT-987
Exam Name: IBM (Administering IBM Lotus Connection 2.5)
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NO.1 if you are creating databases utilizing the Lotus Connections database wizard, which of the following
databases is not an option?
A. Wiki
B. Files
C. Search
D. Activities
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is not true about a stand-alone Lotus Connections deployment?
A. A standard stand-alone deployment is not recommended for large deployments.
B. A standard stand-alone deployment with features on multiple WebSphere Application Server profiles is
not recommended.
C. An advanced stand-alone deployment is where Lotus Connections features are installed across
multiple server instances and administered using WebSphere Network
Deployment.
D. Both the standard and advanced stand-alone deployments do not have centralized administration and
must use the integrated solutions console for administration of servers.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following controls what headers, cookies, and HTTP methods are forwarded to a set of
URLs?
A. Ajax proxy
B. plugin-cfg.xml
C. IBM HTTP Server
D. LotusConnections-config.xml
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have been asked to limit who can post comments on others' boards. What's the command to do this
task?
A. ProfilesConfigService-vice.updateConfig("boardNetworkACL.enabled", "true")
B. ProfilesConfigService-vice.updateConfig("boardInNetworkACL.enabled", "true")
C. ProfilesConfigService-vice.updateConfig("boardIndNetworkACL.enabled", "false") D.
ProfilesConfigService-vice.updateConfig("boardIndNetworkOnly.enabled", "false")
Answer: B

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NO.5 There are three types of custom iWidgets that can be added to Communities. Which type allows the
iWidget to exist outside the community, for example, in search results?
A. Mandated
B. Optional
C. Opened by default
D. None of the above. Community iWidgets can only exist within Communities
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement best describes the necessary backup procedures for Files?
A. Normal database backup procedures are all that are needed.
B. Normal file system backup procedures are all that are needed.
C. Files are backed up as part of the daily Content Store backup procedures.
D. The Files architecture requires that you maintain consistency between the database and the file
system during backup procedures.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have chosen to install all the Lotus Connections features into one profile, with each profile running
in a separate server process. What is the minimum number of IBM HTTP Web servers that you can define
for that profile?
A. One
B. Two
C. Six
D. Eight
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are enabling and configuring the Home page of Lotus Connections and to scale properly, you have
located the feature on a different node than the other features. Which of the following must be true for this
topology to work correctly when using federated repositories?
A. The realm name must be identical on each server.
B. You must enable automatic regeneration of LTPA keys.
C. The servers must all offer forms-based authentication.
D. The user must enter through the Home page to access all features after enabled.
Answer: A

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NO.9 To add authentic user accounts to a Lotus Connections pilot installation, in case of a later migration to
a production installation, which of the following clients are run to import the user information file?
A. db2
B. wsadmin
C. lcadmin
D. profile
Answer: B

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NO.10 Jadon has successfully installed Lotus Connections on multiple servers and has begun to utilize the
Lotus Connections cluster installation wizard. Which of the following requirements is true regarding the
wizard?
A. You need to set up WebSphere Application Server profiles in advance.
B. You must restart the LDAP source between adding each instance to the cluster.
C. You need to set up dynamic DNS entries to point to each feature before beginning.
D. You must edit the DynCluster.xml file on each node and add the other servers to the file.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Lotus Connections caches and saves the favicons of Web sites when users add the bookmark to
Dogear. Which of the following is the default time in days that a favicon is kept until the cache is refreshed
and an update retrieved?
A. 30
B. 45
C. 90
D. 120
Answer: C

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NO.12 Barb has removed the index for blogs and wikis and would like to execute a one-off task that reindexes
the blogs and wikis features 30 seconds after being called. Which configuration service does Barb need to
configure for this task?
A. SearchService
B. HomepageSearch
C. SearchCellConfig
D. FederatedSearchService
Answer: A

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NO.13 You are configuring federated repositories and would like users to authenticate in Lotus Connections
using their Microsoft?Active Directory e-mail address attribute. Which of the following attributes
would you mostly likely use for authentication in the Login properties field?
A. uid
B. mail
C. emailAddress
D. SamAccountName
Answer: B

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NO.14 if you are using the version of DB2 that was included with the Lotus Connections product to be used
exclusively with Lotus Connections, you need to register the DB2 product license key. The key file is
called:
A. db2reg.lcp
B. db2ese_o.lic
C. db2license.txt
D. db2_init.license
Answer: B

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NO.15 To make new widgets available for use on the Home page, what is the minimum role that the user must
be assigned?
A. admin
B. reader
C. person
D. widget-admin
Answer: A

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NO.16 Concerning the management of the size of wikis, which of these statements is correct?
A. Only the maximum size of the library can be set.
B. Only the maximum size of the items in the library can be set.
C. The maximum size of the library and items in the library can be set.
D. No maximum sizes can be set on either the library or items in the library.
Answer: C

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NO.17 To configure existing widgets or to make custom widgets available for use in Profiles, you modify
settings in which file?
A. widgets-config.xml
B. profiles-config.xml
C. profiles-widgets.xml
D. lotusConnections-config.xml
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following components of Lotus Connections requires updating additional property files to
enable virus scanning?
A. Blogs
B. Profiles
C. Home page
D. Activities
Answer: A

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NO.19 When installing the Lotus Connections features, Cailyn needs to provide for future growth that might
contain a mixture of server instances and WebSphere Application Server profiles. Which of the following
installation types should she choose?
A. Pilot
B. Stand-alone
C. Network deployment
D. Advanced stand-alone
Answer: C

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NO.20 Randy wants to configure the system to allow multiple file types to be uploaded and attached to Blogs.
What best describes the steps he needs to take to do this task?
A. Modify the list of Allowed Extensions on the Administration tab
B. Modify the mimes.types in <WAS_PROFILE_ROOT>Blogs.war/META-INF
C. Modify the AllowableExtensions attribute in LotusConnections-Config.xml
D. Modify the list of Allowed Extensions on the Administration tab and modify the mimes.types in
<WAS_PROFILE_ROOT>Blogs.war/META-INF
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-171
Exam Name: IBM (IBM BPM Blueprint: WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.1 Developm)
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Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 At the BPD level, a private variable and input variable can have the same name.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 if the activity "Rework" in a process is performed by both "Reworkers" and "Assembly Operators", then:
A. create a separate process for each and link the process back to the higher level process.
B. duplicate the activity in both the Reworker swimlane and in the Assembly Operator swimlane.
C. use a nested process in order to create two participant swimlanes for that activity and then assign the
task to the first available participant.
D. choose the group that is ultimately responsible for the rework and if both parties are responsible, then
create a swimlane that includes both participants.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Given a process where in one step an agent enters a refund amount, and in the next step a manager
either Approves it or Rejects the refund. In the approval step, the variable refu ndAmount will be
mapped as:
A. private
B. input
C. output
D. output and private
E. input and private
Answer: B

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which variables are passed by value?
A. Simple variables passed from Publish Position to Web to a subprocess.
B. Simple variables passed from Open New Position to the Open Position service.
C. Complex variables passed from Publish Position to Web to a subprocess.
D. Complex variables passed from Open New Position to the Open Position service.
Answer: ABD

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NO.5 When routing to "Lane Participant," the Task will be assigned to the Participant group defined for that
swimlane.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 When the developer uses the Activity Wizard, what are control labels based on?
A. Variable names
B. Variable type names
C. Default text
D. Documentation tab
Answer: A

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NO.7 The "tolerance interval" in the intermediate timer event is used to:
A. build in a certain level of tolerable inefficiency into the process
B. take into account weekends, holidays and other task downtimes
C. specify an additional delay if the work is in progress
D. specify an additional delay irrespective of whether the work is in progress or not
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the proper way to add a parameter to a Java Integration Component?
A. Add a parameter to the Human Service.
B. Add a parameter to the General System Service.
C. Add a parameter to the Integration Component.
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.9 Given a process where in one step an agent enters a refund amount, and in the next step a manager
either Approves it or Rejects the refund. In the approval step, the variable approved will be mapped as:
A. private
B. input
C. output
D. output and private
E. input and private
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statement is true regarding exclusive (XOR) gateways?
A. Only one outgoing sequence condition can be true.
B. Outgoing default condition is only met if none of the conditions are true.
C. Evaluation of subsequent conditions continues even after one condition is met.
D. Conditions are evaluated top to bottom as defined in the gateway's property tab.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-555
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Informix Dynamic Server 11.50 Fundamentals)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-02

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NO.1 When you execute an INSERT statement, the database server will insert a NULL value into any
column that meets which two conditions? (Choose two.)
A. You provide no value for a specific column.
B. Where a zero is specified in the VALUES clause of a serial column.
C. Where you specify the NULL keyword in the VALUES clause for a specific column.
D. Columns that are used in indexes.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the update statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will update col1 of the rows having col1=20 that were updated to have col1 = 25 by client 1.
B. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked".
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will return successfully without updating any rows.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two steps are necessary to enable encryption with the Communication Support Modules?
(Choose two.)
A. Add an entry to the concsm.cfg file.
B. Add an entry to the options column of thesqlhosts file or registry.
C. Set the CSMENConconfig variable.
D. Set the encryption flag in theencrypt_db table in the sysadm database.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 User A creates a user defined routine. Which privilege must be granted to other users before they can
use user A's UDR?
A. select on the tables used in the procedure
B. execute on the procedure
C. DBA on the database
D. resource on the database
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about the COMMIT WORK statement? (Choose two.)
A. The keyword WORK is optional.
B. The COMMIT WORK statement releases all row locks but not table locks.
C. All of the successful modifications that the transaction makes are saved to disk when you issue a
COMMIT WORK statement.
D. A new transaction automatically starts after each COMMIT WORK or ROLLBACK WORK statement in
anonlogged database.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 What are two ways to create table t1 with row level locking? (Choose two.)
A. Execute command "create table t1 (c1int) locking row".
B. Execute command "create table t1 (c1int) lock mode row".
C. Execute command "create table t1 (c1int) lock level row".
D. Set DEF_TABLE_LOCKMODE to ROW in ONCONFIG before executing "create tablet1(c1 int)".
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the update statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will update col2 of the rows having col1=20.
B. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked" or the "table is locked".
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will return successfully without updating any rows.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two statements are correct about Remote Standalone (RS) secondary instances? (Choose
two.)
A. RS secondary instances can be dynamically added and removed.
B. RS secondary instances support automatic index repair.
C. RS secondary instances can become a HDR secondary.
D. RS secondary instancesrequires a HDR secondary to be present in order to function.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Enterprise Replication (ER) requires which data object to exist in all tables participating in replication?
A. a virtual column
B. a unique index
C. a unique constraint
D. a primary key
Answer: D

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NO.10 In a SELECT statement, the clauses must appear in which order?
A. Projection, FROM, WHERE, ORDER BY, GROUP BY, HAVING, INTO TEMP
B. Projection, FROM, WHERE, HAVING, ORDER BY, GROUP BY, INTO TEMP
C. Projection, FROM, WHERE, GROUP BY, HAVING, ORDER BY, INTO TEMP
D. Projection, FROM, INTO TEMP, WHERE, HAVING, ORDER BY, GROUP BY
Answer: C

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NO.11 In which three places may a function be used in a SELECT statement? (Choose three.)
A. in the select (or projection) list
B. in a group by clause
C. in a sub query
D. in a predicate
E. in a cube definition
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 What are three system level databases? (Choose three.)
A. sysmaster
B. sysadmin
C. sysmonitor
D. sysutils
E. sysperf
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 Which two instance types are disaster recovery oriented rather than high availability oriented?
(Choose two.)
A. an Enterprise Replication instance
B. a RS Secondary instance
C. a SD Secondary instance
D. a Continuous Log Restore instance
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the select statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will select the rows that had col1=20 and were updated to have col1=25 by Client 1.
B. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked" or the "table is locked".
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will return successfully without selecting any rows.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which three statements will delete all rows from table_name? (Choose three.)
A. DELETE FROMtable_name ;
B. DELETEtable_name ;
C. DELETE * FROMtable_name ;
D. TRUNCATE TABLEtable_name ;
E. DELETE ALL FROMtable_name;
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.16 Which statement will change the column address1 to a null value?
A. UPDATE customer SET address1 = null WHERE customer_num = 134;
B. UPDATE customer SET address1 = '123 New Street', SET address2 = null WHERE customer_num =
134;
C. UPDATE customer SET address1 = "" WHERE customer_num = 134;
D. UPDATE customer SET address1 = null, SET address2 = null WHERE customer_num = 134;
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which keyword is used to determine whether a comparison is true for every value returned from a sub
query?
A. NOT
B. ALL
C. SOME
D. EVERY
Answer: B

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NO.18 You can use a "role" to enforce which two kinds of security or access control in an instance and/or its
data? (Choose two.)
A. Access to data within a table at a row and column level.
B. Access to data based on the types of tasks to be performed.
C. Control which user(s) may or may not create databases.
D. Control which user(s) may or may not execute administrative functions.
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 Why would you want to create a table with a lock mode row as opposed to a lock mode page?
A. to have the highest level of contention within transactions operating on the table
B. to reduce the number of locks when accessing rows out of the table
C. to have increased concurrency
D. to keep more information in memory for each locked row
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-034
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Fundamentals)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-02

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000-034 (IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Fundamentals) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-034.html

NO.1 What is the purpose of the connectors in a Common Event Console?
A. The Event Handler is incorporated to pass events.
B. Connect to an event repository for the Common Event Console.
C. Retrieve event data to be displayed in the Common Event Console.
D. Send messages to the Message Log view from the Common Event Console.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When can an acknowledgement be created?
A. When others are working on the event.
B. When operations staff makes a request.
C. When an event indicator is visible in the Navigator.
D. When a situation fires and the administrator wants to be first to acknowledge the event.
Answer: C

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NO.3 How are attributes related to workspaces?
A. Workspaces use views to display attributes to the user.
B. Workspaces use attributes to determine graph types to display to the user.
C. Workspace settings are stored in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server using attributes.
D. Workspaces use attributes to determine which navigator items to associate with in the Navigator tree.
Answer: A

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NO.4 How are new managed systems groups created?
A. They are created when IBM Tivoli Monitoring is installed.
B. They are created in the Manage Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Services.
C. They are created using the Object Editor under the Managed Systems Group tab.
D. They are created with the Situation Editor within the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What determines the eligibility of a situation to a Navigator item?
A. Situation type.
B. Situation event state.
C. Managed systems associated with the Navigator item.
D. All situations are eligible for association with any Navigator item.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where are policies designed in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client?
A. In the Views.
B. In the Workspace.
C. In the Workflow Editor.
D. In the Situation Editor.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are the three default user groups provided with Tivoli Enterprise Portal?
A. Administrator, Diagnostic Users, Operator
B. Administrator, Application Users, Operator
C. Application Users, Diagnostic Users, Operator
D. Administrator, Diagnostic Users, Application Users
Answer: A

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NO.8 What type of link uniquely identifies the target workspace?
A. Dynamic
B. Filtered
C. Relative
D. Absolute
Answer: D

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NO.9 When performing an investigation into the increased disk space usage of a Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring
Agent, it is discovered that the historical data file is quite large. Which two actions will decrease the
amount of data stored in that file? (Choose two.)
A. Change Summarization from Daily to Hourly.
B. Reduce the Warehouse Interval from 1 day to 1 hour.
C. Increase the Warehouse Interval from 1 hour to 12 hours.
D. Increase the Collection Interval from 1 minute to 15 minutes.
E. Decrease the Collection Interval from 30 minutes to 5 minutes.
Answer: B, D

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NO.10 Which two places can Workspace Administration Mode permission authority be set? (Choose two.)
A. Users
B. Members
C. Member Of
D. User Groups
E. User Policies
Answer: A, D

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NO.11 Where are attributes to be displayed in a workspace view selected?
A. In the Query tab of each workspace Properties.
B. In the Filters tab of each workspace Properties.
C. In the Query tab of each workspace view's Properties.
D. In the Filters tab of each workspace view's Properties.
Answer: D

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NO.12 When is persistent event monitoring useful in IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM)?
A. To count the number of events in ITM.
B. To determine when a situation is needed.
C. To determine whether a condition is consistent or intermittent.
D. To determine when more agents must be deployed across a ITM environment.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two items are managed by right clicking an agent in a navigator tree? (Choose two.)
A. Queries
B. Policies
C. Situations
D. Attributes
E. Attribute Groups
Answer: B, C

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NO.14 How is it determined if a situation is associated with a Navigator item?
A. Launch the Situation Editor from the toolbar.
B. Right click the Required Navigator Item and select Situations.
C. Select the properties for the Navigator Item and click Situations.
D. Filter the situations for the Navigator item by Associated with Navigator Item.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is used to quickly switch from one workspace to another in the Desktop Portal Client?
A. Link
B. Launch
C. Bookmark
D. Graphic Icon
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the minimum interval for Summarization and Pruning?
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is provided for a user to view agent specific IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) data when Application
Support is installed and configured on ITM components?
A. Workspaces, Users, Events
B. Workspaces, Situations, Queries
C. Expert Advice, Charts, Templates
D. Situations, Queries, Take Actions
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which workspace chart best represents the proportional value of each data point to the whole.?
A. Pie Chart
B. Bar Chart
C. Plot Chart
D. Circular Gauge Chart
Answer: A

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NO.19 How does a sampled event get closed in IBM Tivoli Monitoring?
A. A sampled event can be manually closed by a user.
B. A sampled event is closed after 60 minutes by default.
C. A sampled event is closed when the condition that raised it becomes true.
D. A sampled event is closed when the condition that raised it is no longer true.
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is an example of a data element that can be monitored with a situation?
A. CPU usage.
B. Timestamp for event arrival.
C. Event acknowledgement time.
D. Number of situations deployed.
Answer: A

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