ST0-050 復習資料、251-250 最新な問題集、ST0-097 認定資格

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試験番号：ST0-050問題集
試験科目：Symantec Network Access Control 11 (STS)
最近更新時間：2014-05-05
問題と解答：全100問 ST0-050 資格認定
100％の返金保証。1年間の無料アップデート。

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試験番号：251-250問題集
試験科目：Administration of Staorage Foundation 5.0 for UNIX
最近更新時間：2014-05-05
問題と解答：全208問 251-250 学習資料
100％の返金保証。1年間の無料アップデート。

>>詳しい紹介はこちら

 

試験番号：ST0-097問題集
試験科目：Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS)
最近更新時間：2014-05-05
問題と解答：全137問 ST0-097 受験記対策
100％の返金保証。1年間の無料アップデート。

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「今の生活と仕事は我慢できない。他の仕事をやってみたい。」このような考えがありますか。しかし、どのようにより良い仕事を行うことができますか。ITが好きですか。ITを通して自分の実力を証明したいのですか。IT業界に従事したいなら、IT認定試験を受験して認証資格を取得することは必要になります。あなたが今しなければならないのは、広く認識された価値があるIT認定試験を受けることです。そうすれば、新たなキャリアへの扉を開くことができます。SymantecのST0-097認定試験というと、きっとわかっているでしょう。この資格を取得したら、新しい仕事を探す時、あなたが大きなヘルプを得ることができます。何ですか。自信を持っていないからST0-097試験を受けるのは無理ですか。それは問題ではないですよ。あなたはJPexamのST0-097問題集を利用することができますから。

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NO.1 Which command grows the datavol volume by an additional 30 MB and resizes the file system at
the same time?
A.vxassist -g datadg growby datavol 30m
B.vxresize -g datadg datavol 30m
C.vxresize -g datadg datavol +30m
D.vxassist -g datadg growto datavol 30m
Correct:C

Symantec 教科書   251-250 認証試験   251-250

NO.2 Which statements are true about renaming the disk object? (Choose two.)
A.New disk names must be unique within the disk group.
B.All subdisks will be renamed together with the disk.
C.The disk group needs to be offline.
D.The new disk name must be unique within the system.
E.Subdisks names will remain the same.
Correct:A E

Symantec 教科書   251-250 認証試験   251-250

NO.3 When creating a new volume with the New Volume Wizard in VEA, which layout options are
available to create a layered volume? (Choose two.)
A.concatenate-mirror
B.stripe-mirror
C.mirror-stripe
D.mirror-concatenate
E.concatenate-stripe
F.stripe-concatenate
Correct:A B

Symantec 教科書   251-250 認証試験   251-250

NO.4 Which command removes the datadg02 disk from the datadg disk group?
A.vxassist datadg rmdisk datadg02
B.vxdg datadg rmdisk datadg02
C.vxassist datadg remove disk datadg02
D.vxdg datadg remove datadg02
Correct:B

Symantec 教科書   251-250 認証試験   251-250

NO.5 In the output of the vxdisk list command, there are no entries in the DISK and GROUP columns.
However, you see online invalid in the output of the STATUS column. What does the online invalid
status indicate?
A.The disk is failing and needs to be replaced for future use in Volume Manager.
B.The disk is incompatible with the current release of Volume Manager.
C.The disk is available for initialization or encapsulation by Volume Manager.
D.The disk is available for use and has encapsulated data deported on another system.
Correct:C

Symantec 教科書   251-250 認証試験   251-250

NO.6 Which command displays the number of paths to the datadg01 disk?
A.vxdisk list datadg01
B.vxdg list datadg01
C.vxpath list datadg01
D.vxdmpadm list datadg01
Correct:A

Symantec 教科書   251-250 認証試験   251-250

NO.7 What occurs when you add an initialized disk to an existing disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The public and private regions are created on the disk.
B.An empty volume is created on the disk by default.
C.The disk group configuration database is updated.
D.Volume Manager performs a rescan to recognize all newly configured disks.
E.The disk is stamped with the system host ID.
Correct:C E

Symantec 教科書   251-250 認証試験   251-250

NO.8 Which states are displayed in the output of vxprint? (Choose two.)
A.Data
B.Kernel
C.File System
D.Volume
E.User
Correct:B D

Symantec 教科書   251-250 認証試験   251-250

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試験番号：ST0-130問題集
試験科目：Symantec Management Platform 7.1 Technical Assessment
最近更新時間：2014-02-23
問題と解答：全160問
100％の返金保証。1年間の無料アップデート。

試験番号：ASC-094問題集
試験科目：ASC Storage Management Assessment
最近更新時間：2014-02-23
問題と解答：全77問
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試験番号：ST0-114問題集
試験科目：PGP Universal Server 3.0 Technical Assessment
最近更新時間：2014-02-23
問題と解答：全240問
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試験番号：ASC-066問題集
試験科目：ASC EndPoint Management Assessment
最近更新時間：2014-02-23
問題と解答：全83問
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試験番号：ASC-012問題集
試験科目：ASC High Availablity Assessment
最近更新時間：2014-02-23
問題と解答：全75問
100％の返金保証。1年間の無料アップデート。

試験番号：ST0-097問題集
試験科目：Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS)
最近更新時間：2014-02-23
問題と解答：全137問
100％の返金保証。1年間の無料アップデート。

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NO.1 Which two capabilities of Symantec Common Product Installer (CPI) are not supported by the
web-based installer for Storage Foundation 5.1? (Select two.)
A. installing Storage Foundation
B. uninstalling Storage Foundation
C. upgrading Storage Foundation
D. configuring Storage Foundation for Oracle RAC (SFRAC)
E. adding license keys for Storage Foundation
Answer: C, D

Symantec問題集   ASC-094認定証   ASC-094問題集   ASC-094認定証

NO.2 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with the srlprot attribute set to override.
If there is an SRL overflow while the RLINK is connected, what happens to the running application issuing
writes.?
A. Application continues, and VVR overflows the SRL.
B. Application is blocked until SRL drains 5% or 20 megabytes, whichever is smaller.
C. Application is blocked until the RLINK is automatically detached after AutoDetach seconds have
elapsed.
D. Application continues, and VVR is automatically converted to DCM logging.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have been asked to review a customer's VVR configuration, and found that the Rlink has the
following attributes: srlprot=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps What is the risk to the customer's
application if the SRL overflows?
A. Application writes will be stalled which may cause the front-end application to fail or hang.
B. The bandwidth_limit will be increased so the SRL can drain, and this may overload the network and
cause application performance problems.
C. The size of the SRL will be increased, leaving less space if the application volumes need to be
extended.
D. VVR will start to use the DCM, which requires a replay of the DCM, during which, Write Order Fidelity
for the application data is lost.
Answer: A

Symantec参考書   ASC-094認定資格   ASC-094認証試験   ASC-094

NO.4 What are the limitations when upgrading CVM and CFS to version 5.1?
A. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the same versions of software; rolling upgrades
with mixed versions of software are only supported from 5.1 onwards.
B. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the latest MP for the current version prior to the
upgrade to 5.1.
C. Rolling upgrades can only be performed from version 5.0 to 5.1; rolling upgrades from 4.1 are not
supported
D. Rolling upgrades can only be performed if the diskgroup and filesystem versions remain unchanged
until all of the systems have been upgraded to the same version of software
Answer: A

Symantec   ASC-094   ASC-094

NO.5 A customer has two identical servers that support an OLTP database and billing application, respectively.
Each night they run a batch job to create a full Volume Manager snapshot of their OLTP database, which
is then imported and mounted on the other server to support the billing application. The customer has
asked an administrator to upgrade the version of Storage Foundation on the OLTP server to version 5.1.
Which action should be taken when performing this upgrade?
A. Upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries, diskgroups, and filesystems on the OLTP server and advise
the customer to upgrade their billing system to the same version of Storage Foundation software.
B. Inform the customer that they must upgrade the OLTP and Billing servers at the same time.
C. Modify the Storage Foundation configuration to use space-saving snapshots instead of full snapshots.
D. Only upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries on the OLTP server, do not upgrade the diskgroup and
filesystem versions until after the Billing server has been upgraded.
Answer: D

Symantec練習問題   ASC-094   ASC-094認定資格   ASC-094参考書

NO.6 A customer has Veritas Volume Replication (VVR) version 5.1 with the following Rlink attributes:
synchronous=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps Which statement is true?
A. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, then the
bandwidth_limit attribute will be overridden to try and maintain a synchronous copy of the data at the
secondary site.
B. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, it will
automatically fall-back to asynchronous mode to enable replication within the defined bandwidth limits.
C. VVR will throttle the write operations on the primary server in order to replicate the data
synchronously to the secondary site within the bandwidth limits. In the event of a network failure VVR will
fallback to asynchronous replication mode and the write operations on the primary server will no longer be
throttled, but the bandwidth for replicating to the secondary site will still be limited.
D. The bandwidth_limit attribute does not apply to synchronous replication, however in the event that the
rLink falls back to asynchronous mode the data will then be replicated within the defined bandwidth limits.
Answer: C

Symantec   ASC-094参考書   ASC-094   ASC-094   ASC-094

NO.7 Why is it important to upgrade Storage Foundation diskgroups and filesystem versions after upgrading
the version of software on a system?
A. Storage Foundation will be unable to access the files residing on diskgroups and filesystems that have
an older version than the binaries.
B. Older diskgroup and filesystem versions are only supported during a rolling upgrade.
C. Upgrading the diskgroup and filesystem versions will enable the full capabilities of the product to be
deployed.
D. It eliminates warnings being sent to the console due to the out-of-date diskgroup and filesystem
versions.
Answer: C

Symantec過去問   ASC-094   ASC-094認定証   ASC-094過去問   ASC-094参考書

NO.8 Which two components should ordinarily be configured within a Relicated Volume Group (RVG)?
(Select two.)
A. SRL
B. RDS
C. DCM
D. Diskgroup
E. Rlink
Answer: A, C

Symantec参考書   ASC-094   ASC-094

NO.9 In which order must the tasks be performed to initially synchronize VVR replication using
checkpoints? .
Start replication using vradmin -c checkpoint startrep . Run "vxrvg -c checkpoint
checkstart" . Run "vxrvg checkend" . Perform a block-level backup at the primary . Restore raw backup at
the secondary
A. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
C. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
D. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
Answer: C

Symantec   ASC-094過去問   ASC-094認定証   ASC-094参考書   ASC-094練習問題

NO.10 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with srlprot attribute set to autodcm. In
the event that the SRL overflows, what will happen?
A. VVR will delay any further writes to the primary node until the SRL has drained below the
low-watermark threshold
B. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR then
automatically replicates writes tracked by the DCM.
C. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR stops and the
DCM must be replayed manually.
D. VVR stops replicating and writes in the SRL are converted into DCM logging. The DCM must then be
replayed manually.
Answer: D

Symantec   ASC-094参考書   ASC-094   ASC-094

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Exam Code: ST0-097
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 137 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-25

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NO.1 Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 includes a new policy-based encryption feature. How is this new
feature licensed?
A. The license is included with Symantec Protection Suite.
B. The license is included with Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0.
C. The license is included with Symantec Content Encryption.
D. The license is included with Symantec Endpoint Encryption.
Answer: C

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NO.2 During which phase of inbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 accept, reject, or
defer messages on the basis of the message envelope?
A. SMTP delivery
B. message filtering
C. SMTP session
D. message routing
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the Symantec Global Bad and Good Sender lists based on?
A. reputation data from Symantec Global Services
B. reputation data from a global Symantec LiveUpdate server
C. reputation data from the Symantec Global Intelligence Network
D. global reputation data from Symantec Protection Center
Answer: C

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NO.4 .In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A. when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B. when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C. when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D. when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E. when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.5 A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure different seed values on each control center
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure different seed values on each scanner
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. hostname for default gateway
C. hostname, port, username, and password for proxy
D. two IP addresses for each appliance
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which feature, when enabled through the directory data sources, allows third party MTAs the ability to
relay through Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 and protects it against becoming an open relay?
A. MTA verification
B. address validation
C. TLS certificate authentication
D. SMTP authentication
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-097   ST0-097   ST0-097 original questions   ST0-097

NO.8 An organization is receiving spam because of small targeted attacks from unknown senders. Which
Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature should help slow down these types of attacks?
A. dictionary attack prevention
B. directory harvest attack prevention
C. global reputation analysis
D. connection classification
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists.?
(Select two.)
A. add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains
B. check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group"
C. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions
D. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions
E. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions
Answer: B, E

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NO.10 Which TCP port is used for communication between the Control Center and the scanner(s)?
A. 41001
B. 41002
C. 41004
D. 41008
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the default report data retention period?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
Answer: A

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NO.12 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A. It provides message management services.
B. It downloads spam definitions.
C. It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D. It downloads virus definitions.
E. It runs filters.
Answer: A, C

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NO.13 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec Brightmail
Gateway 9.0. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the new encryption action introduced in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0?
A. deliver messages with S/MIME encryption
B. deliver messages with content encryption
C. deliver messages with envelope encryption
D. deliver messages with PGP encryption
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature will change the original domain of an internal user
relaying mail outside of an organization?
A. address masquerading
B. address aliasing
C. domain mapping
D. content filtering
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is the maximum number of rows a report can have?
A. 100 rows
B. 1,000 rows
C. 10,000 rows
D. 100,000 rows
Answer: B

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NO.17 During which phase of outbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 determine
whether the number of recipients exceeds the good number of recipients per message?
A. message routing
B. message delivery
C. outbound SMTP session
D. outbound SMTP connection
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts via
reports?
A. Invalid Senders
B. Sender HELO domains
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature improves responsiveness to new spam threats and
increases overall antispam effectiveness?
A. rapid release definitions
B. Fastpass
C. microupdates
D. real time updates
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A. accept and deliver messages normally
B. pause message scanning and delivery
C. do not accept incoming messages
D. flush incoming messages
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-097

Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS))

ST0-097 (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS)) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/ST0-097.html

NO.1 During which phase of inbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 accept, reject, or
defer messages on the basis of the message envelope?
A. SMTP delivery
B. message filtering
C. SMTP session
D. message routing
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which TCP port is used for communication between the Control Center and the scanner(s)?
A. 41001
B. 41002
C. 41004
D. 41008
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are the Symantec Global Bad and Good Sender lists based on?
A. reputation data from Symantec Global Services
B. reputation data from a global Symantec LiveUpdate server
C. reputation data from the Symantec Global Intelligence Network
D. global reputation data from Symantec Protection Center
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts via
reports?
A. Invalid Senders
B. Sender HELO domains
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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NO.5 During which phase of outbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 determine
whether the number of recipients exceeds the good number of recipients per message?
A. message routing
B. message delivery
C. outbound SMTP session
D. outbound SMTP connection
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the new encryption action introduced in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0?
A. deliver messages with S/MIME encryption
B. deliver messages with content encryption
C. deliver messages with envelope encryption
D. deliver messages with PGP encryption
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the default report data retention period?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
Answer: A

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NO.8 An organization is receiving spam because of small targeted attacks from unknown senders. Which
Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature should help slow down these types of attacks?
A. dictionary attack prevention
B. directory harvest attack prevention
C. global reputation analysis
D. connection classification
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A. accept and deliver messages normally
B. pause message scanning and delivery
C. do not accept incoming messages
D. flush incoming messages
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which feature, when enabled through the directory data sources, allows third party MTAs the ability to
relay through Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 and protects it against becoming an open relay?
A. MTA verification
B. address validation
C. TLS certificate authentication
D. SMTP authentication
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists.?
(Select two.)
A. add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains
B. check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group"
C. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions
D. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions
E. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions
Answer: B, E

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NO.12 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A. It provides message management services.
B. It downloads spam definitions.
C. It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D. It downloads virus definitions.
E. It runs filters.
Answer: A, C

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NO.13 .In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A. when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B. when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C. when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D. when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E. when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.14 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec Brightmail
Gateway 9.0. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. hostname for default gateway
C. hostname, port, username, and password for proxy
D. two IP addresses for each appliance
Answer: A

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NO.16 A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure different seed values on each control center
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure different seed values on each scanner
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature will change the original domain of an internal user
relaying mail outside of an organization?
A. address masquerading
B. address aliasing
C. domain mapping
D. content filtering
Answer: D

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NO.18 Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 includes a new policy-based encryption feature. How is this new
feature licensed?
A. The license is included with Symantec Protection Suite.
B. The license is included with Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0.
C. The license is included with Symantec Content Encryption.
D. The license is included with Symantec Endpoint Encryption.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature improves responsiveness to new spam threats and
increases overall antispam effectiveness?
A. rapid release definitions
B. Fastpass
C. microupdates
D. real time updates
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the maximum number of rows a report can have?
A. 100 rows
B. 1,000 rows
C. 10,000 rows
D. 100,000 rows
Answer: B

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