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Exam Code: 7004-1

Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura® Maintenance Exam)

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NO.1 A customer has a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. You have been asked to
add the Call Pickup feature to the ten IP telephones in the sales department. The customer wants to be
sure active calls are not lost when the change are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled allowed you to ensure changes to the telephones
are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone is not busy?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer Route List index shown in the exhibit, what is the first expensive route that a
call placed on that RLI could take?
A. Entry 0
B. Entry 1
C. Entry 2
D. Entry 3
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. Their sales
department is expanding and you have been asked to add Ave new telephones with the same capabilities
as the existing telephones in the department.
Which programming command should you use to complete this task.?
A. Move to DN
B. Move from TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer ¯ s pr ogr a mmed dat abase shown i n t he exhi bit and AC 1 = 9, over whi ch RLI will a call
placed to 9-1-912-534-2222 complete?
A. RLI 9
B. RLI 4
C. RLI 3
D. RLI 2
E. call will not complete as dialed
Answer: B

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NO.5 For a situation where you use the CDP feature at a switch equipped with the MARS software package,
which statement are correct? (Choose two)
A. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that are the same as the assignedNARS Access Cades.
B. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that aredistinct from thoseassigned NARS Access Cades.
C. You can integrate CDP numbers with the NARS Uniform Dialing Plan (UDP).
D. Youcannot shareRoute Lists,Digit Manipulation tables and Time-of-Day schedule withNARS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Consider a company ¯ s di ali ng pl an shown i n t he exhi bit and an exa mpl e f or it s r equi r e ment s:
A station user at the company, with Location Code 221, placed an ESN call, dialing 7-221-2581. This
would be an On-Net call and the NARS programming must remove the LOC code and dial the DN
internally.
What programming would remove the location code for a call dialed within the originating Communication
Server 1000 to a DN on that same Communication Server 1000?
A. Each site would have its own Location Code programmed as a Home Location Code(HLOC) under
Translation Table #1 in their CS 1000.
B. The location codes for each site would be programmed under the LOC programming in Translation
Table #2 at all locations.
C. Home NPA Codes (HNPA) for each site would be programmed under Translation Table #1 at each
location in their CS 1000.
D. Each site would have the Location Codesfor all sites programmed as Home Location Codes (HLOC) in
Translation Table #1 of their CS 1000.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has asked if the Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system can route anyone that dial an
unassigned number in the customer ¯ s DI D r ange t o t he Att endant.
In reviewing the current configuration as shown in the exhibit, what do you conclude?
(Choose two)
A. only internalstation users are routing to the Attendant
B. internal station users and non tie line users are routing to the Attendant
C. all caller types are receiving an overflow tone
D. NET_DATA Attendant and tie trunk users are receiving an overflow tone
Answer: B

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NO.8 The Satellite Link Control feature ensures that the configuration of a call does not include more than one
communications satellite trunk. Tandem trunk calls, when connected through more than one
communication satellite trunk, are subject to transmission distortion due to propagation.
Which parameters are required to be equipped or configured for Satellite Link Control in the
Communication Server 1000?
A. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
B. Route must be configured with STD or ETN signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
C. Network Transfer (NXFR) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN2 or ESN3 signaling
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
D. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 or ESN5 signaling.
Route must be programmed with a Traveling Class of Service (TCOS)
Answer: A

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR programming would allow a
user to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other 1-900 based number?
A. Table 1
B. Table 2
C. Table 3
D. Table 4
Answer: A

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NO.10 An administrator is programming an NRS for the first time on a new Communication Server 1000
system RIS. 7.0 system. When attempting to add the Service Domain, it cannot be added as the Add
button is grayed out in the NRS.
Which tasked should you perform to resolve this issue?
A. reinstall the Signaling Server Software
B. reinstall the NRS software
C. switch from Standby database to Active database
D. switch from Active database to Standby database
Answer: D

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Exam Code: QAWI201

Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Web Intelligence XI 3.0 (QAWI201))

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NO.1 Which panel should you use to view a Document Summary of a BusinessObjects Web
Intelligence XI 3.0 document (WID)?
A. Advanced
B. Query
C. Active X
D. Interactive
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two Web Intelligence Rich Client authentication methods enable you to export Web
Intelligence documents (WID) to the Central Management Server (CMS)? (Choose two.)
A. LTM
B. LDAP
C. Offline
D. Enterprise
E. Standalone
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 You have created a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 document (WID) within InfoView
that has a single table block on a single report page. Where will a new object be displayed when you
add it to the query?
A. In a block
B. In a new report
C. In Query Panel
D. In Report Manager
E. In a new report page
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two settings can you configure for the Sample option in the Properties tab of the Web
Intelligence Query panel? (Choose two.)
A. You can enable the "Fixed" option.
B. You can set the "Max retrieval time".
C. You can set the "Max rows retrieved".
D. You can specify a "Sample Result" set.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Where are formulas stored when created in Web Intelligence?
A. In the universe
B. On the report page
C. In the Central Management Server (CMS) database
D. In the metadata of the Cube
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two methods can you use to apply report filters to a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence
XI 3.0 document (WID)? (Choose two.)
A. Block
B. Global
C. Custom
D. Dynamic
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which three rules apply when you manually synchronize queries? (Choose three.)
A. Dimension value formats must be the same.
B. Dimensions with different names can be merged.
C. Dimensions with different data types can be merged.
D. Dimensions from multiple data sources can be merged.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 Which tab should you use to change the page orientation of a report?
A. Click File > Page Setup and select "Page Orientation"
B. In InfoView Preferences, change the default page orientation
C. Select the report tab; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page
Orientation"
D. Select the report page; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page
Orientation"
Answer: D

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NO.9 Your document displays all data in black. Which dialog box should you use to configure the
colors of your document data?
A. Document Palette
B. Document Formats
C. Display Preferences
D. Data Tracking Options
Answer: D

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NO.10 How many blocks can you create in a Web Intelligence document (WID)?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. Unlimited
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 1Z0-531

Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Essbase 11 Essentials)

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NO.1 Market size is an attribute dimension with the following members: Large, Medium, and Small.
Which of the following options below represent valid syntax statements in a calc script?
A. FIX (@ATTRIBUTE(Large))
B. Calc Dim (Accounts, Markets, "Market Size");
C. Calc Dim (Accounts, Markets, Market Size);
D. FIX(Large)
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which six files are involved in database recovery for block storage option after a database crash?
A. Essn.pag
data
B. Essn.ind
index
C. Essn.dat
D. Temp.dat
E. Dbname.esm - kernel file that contains control information for db recovery
F. Dbname.tct - transaction control table
G. Dbname.ind - free fragment file for data and index free fragments
H. DBname.otl
I. Metadata folder
Answer: A,B,E,F,G,H

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NO.3 Identify four disadvantages / considerations when using a transparent partition.
A. Old data
B. Slow retrievals
C. Slow calculations if referencing dynamic calc members in the source
D. Outline sync complexities
E. Increased network load
F. Downtime required to sync data
Answer: B,C,E,F

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NO.4 Assuming Sales and Year are sparse and Actual is dense, what two actions will the following calc script
perform?
A. Export the data for actual, current year, sales into a text file called data.txt
B. Export the data for actual, current year into a text file called data.txt
C. Export data blocks in a compressed encrypted format
D. Create a text file that can be imported using the DATAIMPORTBIN calc command in another database
that has different dimensionality
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 You should back up the following three for ASO.
A. Hyperion_Home \common
B. Essbaseinstallfolder\bin
C. ARBORPATH \app\appname
D. Essbaseinstallfolder \locale
E. Essbase.sec
F. Essbase.cfg
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.6 You have the following analysis requirement. Products roll up to Product Family which rolls up to
Product Category. You also need to group Products by Product Manager. Product Managers may manage
one or more Products across product families. You do not need to create reports with Product Manager by
Product Family. You need to secure products by Product Manager for planning submissions.
You consider Shared members as a solution because of which two options?
A. Shared members provide cross tab reporting (Product Manager in the rows and Product Familyacross
the column)
B. Shared members provide additional categorization but results in a smaller database then if youwere to
add Product Manager as a separate dimension
C. You can assign security to shared members
D. Shared members can be assigned to sparse members only
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 A calculation script is performed on a database for which Create Block on Equation is OFF. The
command SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ ON is issued immediately before an equation in the script.
Which statementsaccurately describewhen blocks will be created? (Choose two)
A. Blocks will be created ONLY when the equation assigns non-constant values to members of a sparse
dimension
B. Blocks will be created ONLY when the equation assigns constant values to members of a sparse
dimension
C. Blocks will be created when the equation assigns either constant or non-constant values to members
of a spare dimension.
D. No blocks will be created.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Moving a stored entity member in a sparse dimension causes_________.
A. a Full restructure
B. an Index restructure
C. an Outline restructure
D. No restructure
Answer: C

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NO.9 Identify the two true statements about incremental loading.
A. Allows for real time data access for end users.
B. Creates *subscribes* along the main slice in the database.
C. Materialization of slices is required to provide users the correct query results.
D. Different materialized views may exist within a slice as compared to the main slice of the database.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which two options would provide a better design for the following accounts and metrics.?
A. If there are a small number of accounts that require FTE and Expense dollars, split Accounts and
Metrics into 2 dimensions
B. If there are a large number of accounts that require FTE and Expense dollars, split Accounts and
Metrics into 2 dimensions
C. If reporting dictates FTE and dollars in the columns and accounts in the rows, split Accounts and
Metrics into 2 dimensions
D. If block size is large, then keep Accounts and Metrics as one dimension with a dense dimension
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-543

Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Application Integration Architecture 11g Essentials)

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NO.1 In which two ways is an EBF similar to an EBS?
A. They operate only on EBMs.
B. They are external application-independent.
C. They are developed at the same time in the life cycle.
D. Both are modeled to implement only a single operation.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 On your project, you are ready to generate a Deployment Plan. What three parameter values will you
need to be ready for?
A. BOM file location as output file
B. BOM file location as input file
C. Deployment Plan file location as Input file
D. Deployment Plan file location as output file
E. Harvester Settings file location as output file
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 What should you define for an EBS before you begin implementing its operations?
A. contract
B. .cfg file
C. XSD
D. cross-reference
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the purpose of harvesting?
A. to parse theimplementation artifacts and persist their metadata to the AIA backend
B. to source control the implementation artifacts
C. to test the implementation
D. to collect the produced artifacts and store them
Answer: A

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NO.5 For upgrades, knowing what custom mappings have been done can be very useful for customers to
identify whether the upgrade will cause any functional issues. How will you identify the functional issues?
A. XMAN (mapping compliance reports) reports in the CSV can be analyzed to find duplicate EBM
mappings that also contain extended records.
B. XMAN (mapping compliance reports) CSV reports can be analyzed to find the ABCS name that has
changed.
C. PIP Auditor reports can be analyzed to figure out the compliance of upgraded PIP.
D. EOL2CSV reports can be analyzed to find the correct ABCS for specific business flow.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about Enterprise Business Flow (EBF) in context of Oracle AIA?
A. The EBF will have no activity that needs human-to-human interaction.
B. The EBF will involve only human-to-human or service-to-service Interaction.
C. The EBF will involve only system-to-system or service-to-service Interaction.
D. The EBF will involve only system-to-system or human-to-human interaction.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which one best defines where an EBO is defined?
A. WSDL document
B. XSD document
C. Java source file
D. .cfg configuration file
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true about the AIAConfigurationProperties.xml file.?
A. All the service-level configuration properties are stored within the module-level properties.
B. All the module-level configuration properties are stored within the service-level properties.
C. All the module-level configuration properties are stored within the system-level properties.
D. All the service-level configuration properties are stored within the system-level properties
Answer: C

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NO.9 How do you jump start standards-compliant service deployment?
A. By using AIA code generator tool to create a skeleton of ABCS
B. By creating ABCS manually and by executing PIP Auditor to check compliance
C. By enforcing sticker qa checks
D. By manual code walkthrough
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two statements are true for a requester ABCS?
A. It receives the ABM as pay load and optionally returns the ABM as the response.
B. It cannot have additional interactions with the requester application to enrich the ABM.
C. It is supplied by the provider application to interface with an EBS.
D. It enables the participating application to invoke an EBS either to access data or to perform
transactional task.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-854

Exam Name: Oracle (Java Standard Edition 5 Programmer Certified Professional Upgrade Exam)

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NO.1 public Hello() {

NO.2 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Answer:

NO.3 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. ?
Answer:

NO.4 Which two code fragments will execute the method doStuff() in a separate thread? (Choose two.)
A. new Thread() {
public void start() { doStuff(); }};
B. new Thread() {
public void run() { doStuff(); }};
C. new Thread(new Runnable() {
public void run() { doStuff(); }
}).start();
D. new Thread() {
public void start() { doStuff(); }
}.run();
E. new Thread(new Runnable() {
public void run() { doStuff(); }
}).run();
F. new Thread() {
public void run() { doStuff(); }
}.start();
Answer: C,F

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NO.5 Given:
1. interface TestA { String toString(); }
2. public class Test {
3. public static void main(String[] args) {
4. System.out.println(new TestA() {
5. public String toString() { return "test"; }
6. });
7. }

NO.6 }
and:
30. SubCalc sc = new SubCalc ();
31. System.out.println(sc.multiply(3,4));
32. System.out.println(SubCalc.multiply(2,2));
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails because of an error in line 31.
B. The code runs with no output.
C. 12
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 22.
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
F. Compilation fails because of an error in line 21.
Answer: D

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15.Given:
12. NumberFormat nf = NumberFormat.getInstance();
13. nf.setMaximumFractionDigits(4);
14. nf.setMinimumFractionDigits(2);
15. String a = nf.format(3.1415926);
16. String b = nf.format(2);
Which two statements are true about the result if the default locale is Locale.US? (Choose two.)
A. The value of a is 3.1415.
B. The value of a is 3.14.
C. The value of a is 3.141.
D. The value of b is 2.
E. The value of b is 2.0000.
F. The value of a is 3.1416.
G. The value of b is 2.00.
Answer: F,G

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16.Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement is true about the two classes?
A. Compilation of class B will fail. Compilation of class A will succeed.
B. Compilation of class A will fail. Compilation of class B will succeed.
C. Compilation of both classes will fail.
D. Compilation of both classes will succeed.
Answer: A

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17.Given:
11. class ClassA {}
12. class ClassB extends ClassA {}
13. class ClassC extends ClassA {}
and:
21. ClassA p0 = new ClassA();
22. ClassB p1 = new ClassB();
23. ClassC p2 = new ClassC();
24. ClassA p3 = new ClassB();
25. ClassA p4 = new ClassC();
Which three are valid? (Choose three.)
A. p2 = p4;
B. p2 = (ClassC)p1;
C. p0 = p1;
D. p2 = (ClassC)p4;
E. p1 = p2;
F. p1 = (ClassB)p3;
Answer: C,D,F

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18.Given this method in a class:
21. public String toString() {
22. StringBuffer buffer = new StringBuffer();
23. buffer.append('<');
24. buffer.append(this.name);
25. buffer.append('>');

NO.7 Which three statements concerning the use of the java.io.Serializable interface are true? (Choose
three.)
A. Objects from classes that use aggregation cannot be serialized.
B. The values in fields with the transient modifier will NOT survive serialization and deserialization.
C. It is legal to serialize an object of a type that has a supertype that does NOT implement
java.io.Serializable.
D. The values in fields with the volatile modifier will NOT survive serialization and deserialization.
E. An object serialized on one JVM can be successfully deserialized on a different JVM.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.8 }

NO.9 int value;

NO.10 Hello();

NO.11 Given:
20. public class CreditCard {
21.
22. private String cardID;
23. private Integer limit;
24. public String ownerName;
25.
26. public void setCardInformation(String cardID,
27. String ownerName,
28. Integer limit) {
29. this.cardID = cardID;
30. this.ownerName = ownerName;
31. this.limit = limit;
32. }
33. }
Which statement is true?
A. The ownerName variable breaks encapsulation.
B. The class is fully encapsulated.
C. The cardID and limit variables break polymorphism.
D. The code demonstrates polymorphism.
E. The setCardInformation method breaks encapsulation.
Answer: A

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NO.12 title = "Hello";

NO.13 title += " World";

NO.14 this.value = value;

NO.15 }
and:
30. Hello c = new Hello(5);
31: System.out.println(c.title);
What is the result?
A. The code runs with no output.
B. Hello
C. Hello World 5
D. Compilation fails.
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
F. Hello World
Answer: D

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11.Given:
10. class Line {
11. public class Point { public int x,y;}
12. public Point getPoint() { return new Point(); }
13. }
14. class Triangle {
15. public Triangle() {
16. // insert code here
17. }
18. }
Which code, inserted at line 16, correctly retrieves a local instance of a Point object?
A. Point p = (new Line()).getPoint();
B. Line.Point p = Line.getPoint();
C. Point p = Line.getPoint();
D. Line.Point p = (new Line()).getPoint();
Answer: D

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12.Given:
11. // insert code here
12. private N min, max;
13. public N getMin() { return min; }
14. public N getMax() { return max; }
15. public void add(N added) {
16. if (min == null || added.doubleValue() < min.doubleValue())
17. min = added;
18. if (max == null || added.doubleValue() > max.doubleValue())
19. max = added;
20. }
21. }
Which two, inserted at line 11, will allow the code to compile? (Choose two.)
A. public class MinMax<?> {
B. public class MinMax<N extends Object> {
C. public class MinMax<N extends Integer> {
D. public class MinMax<? extends Object> {
E. public class MinMax<N extends Number> {
F. public class MinMax<? extends Number> {
Answer: C,E

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13.A developer is creating a class Book, that needs to access class Paper. The Paper class is deployed in
a JAR named myLib.jar.
Which three, taken independently, will allow the developer to use the Paper class while compiling the
Book class? (Choose three.)
A. The JAR file is located at $JAVA_HOME/jre/classes/myLib.jar.
B. The JAR file is located at /foo/myLib.jar and the Book class is compiled using javac -d
/foo/myLib.jar Book.java
C. The JAR file is located at /foo/myLib.jar and a classpath environment variable is set that
includes /foo/myLib.jar/Paper.class.
D. The JAR file is located at $JAVA_HOME/jre/lib/ext/myLib.jar..
E. The JAR file is located at /foo/myLib.jar and the Book class is compiled using javac -classpath
/foo/myLib.jar Book.java
F. The JAR file is located at /foo/myLib.jar and the Book class is compiled using javac -cp
/foo/myLib.jar/Paper Book.java.
G. The JAR file is located at /foo/myLib.jar and a classpath environment variable is set that includes
/foo/myLib.jar.
Answer: D,E,G

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14.Given:
10. public class SuperCalc {
11. protected static int multiply(int a, int b) { return a * b;}
12. }
and:
20. public class SubCalc extends SuperCalc{
21. public static int multiply(int a, int b) {

NO.16 public Hello(int value) {

NO.17 }
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails because of an error in line 5.
B. A NullPointerException occurs at runtime.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 9.
D. A NumberFormatException occurs at runtime.
E. The value "4" is printed at the command line.
F. An IllegalStateException occurs at runtime.
Answer: B

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10.Given:
10. public class Hello {
11: String title;

NO.18 }

NO.19 int c = super.multiply(a, b);

NO.20 return c;

NO.21 }
Which statement is true?
A. This code will perform well and converting the code to use StringBuilder will not enhance the
performance.
B. This code will perform poorly. For better performance, the code should be rewritten: return "<" +
this.name + ">";
C. This code is NOT thread-safe.
D. The programmer can replace StringBuffer with StringBuilder with no other changes.
Answer: D

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19.DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Answer:
20.Click the Exhibit button.
What two must the programmer do to correct the compilation errors? (Choose two.)
A. change the wheelCount variable in Car to protected
B. insert a call to this() in the MeGo constructor
C. insert a call to this() in the Car constructor
D. insert a call to super(vin) in the MeGo constructor
E. insert a call to super() in the MeGo constructor
F. change line 3 in the MeGo class to super.wheelCount = 3;
Answer: A,D

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NO.22 }

NO.23 }
What is the result?
A. null
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 5.
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 4.
E. Compilation fails because of an error in line 1.
F. test
Answer: F

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8.DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Answer:

NO.24 }

NO.25 Given:
12. import java.io.*;
13. public class Forest implements Serializable {
14. private Tree tree = new Tree();
15. public static void main(String [] args) {
16. Forest f = new Forest();
17. try {
18. FileOutputStream fs = new FileOutputStream("Forest.ser");
19. ObjectOutputStream os = new ObjectOutputStream(fs);
20. os.writeObject(f); os.close();
21. } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); }
22. } }
23.
24. class Tree { }
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. An instance of Forest is serialized.
C. An instance of Forest and an instance of Tree are both serialized.
D. Compilation fails.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Given:
1. public class Boxer1{
2. Integer i;
3. int x;
4. public Boxer1(int y) {
5. x = i+y;
6. System.out.println(x);
7. }
8. public static void main(String[] args) {
9. new Boxer1(new Integer(4));

NO.27 return buffer.toString();

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Examine the exhibit. Based on the information in this exhibit, which files can user Jane delete?
A. file1 file2 log
B. file2 log
C. file1 file3 log
D. file1 file2 file3 log
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have a file that contains a list of parts in a single column. You need to append the text
string .ex2009 to each entry. You will use the vi editor and the last line mode to append this text to each
entry. Which command will add the text correctly?
A. :%s/*/.ex2009/
B. :%s/.$/.ex2009/
C. :%s/$/.ex2009/
D. :%s/*$/.ex2009/
Answer: C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows a listing of Jane's directory. Consider the entry repair. Choose the commands that
might have been used to create this file.
A. cp /export/home/jane/things/fixit /export/home/jane/repair
B. ln /export/home/jane/repair /export/home/jane/things/fixit
C. ln /export/home/jane/things/fixit /export/home/jane/repair
D. mkfile 32b /export/home/jane/repair
E. ln -s /export/home/jane/things/fixit /export/home/jane/repair
F. ln -s /export/home/jane/repair /export/home/jane/things/fixit
Answer: E

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NO.4 Frank executes the following single command line:
$ ln /export/home/frank/audio_books/enders_game /export/home/frank/bookdata Choose the files that
would result from executing this command.
A. -rw-r--r-- 2 frank frank 1699 Oct 29 00:51 enders_game
B. lrwxrwxrwx 1 frank frank 27 May 17 00:54 /export/home/frank/audio_books/enders_game ->
/export/home/frank/bookdata
C. -rw-r--r-- 2 frank frank 1699 Oct 29 00:51 bookdata
D. lrwxrwxrwx 1 frank frank 42 May 17 00:54 /export/home/frank/bookdata ->
/export/home/frank/audio_books/enders_game
Answer: C

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Jane has listed the files in her home directory as shown in the exhibit. Choose the answers that correctly
describes the files in this directory. (Choose three.)
A. The file fixit is a symbolic link to the file repair
B. The file buttons can be executed by a user in the sales group
C. The file gadget could be a hard link to the file buttons
D. The file search can be modified by users in the sales group
E. The file repair is a symbolic link to the file fixit
F. Users in the sales group can enter the widgets directory
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.6 Consider the following command:
$ cal 9 1752
The cal command is followed by which one of the following choices? A. arguments
B. options
C. variables
D. preferences
Answer: A

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows the first few lines of a system run control script. In which shell is this script executed?
A. Bourne Shell
B. Z Shell
C. C Shell
D. Korn Shell
E. Bash Shell
Answer: A

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit is a listing of your current directory. Based on the information shown, choose the file from the
listing that is a regular file.
A. acme
B. instance
C. screen
D. door_pipe
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows a listing of Jane's home directory. Jane wants to delete the directory dir1. Choose the
command that would remove only the dir1 directory.
A. rm ./widgets/*
B. rm ./widgets/dir1
C. rm -r ./widgets
D. rmdir ./widgets/dir1
Answer: D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Jane has listed the contents of her home directory as shown in the exhibit. Choose which
command she would have entered to produce this output.
A. ls -lR
B. ls -lLR
C. ls -lr
D. ls -LR *
E. ls -lr *
Answer: A

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
Frank needs to add write access for the sales group, so he uses the following command:
$ chmod g+w project543.dat Choose which answer reflects the result of this command.
A. Only the sales group will be given write access to the file.
B. Only the sales group and market group will have write access to the file.
C. The sales group and market group and user jane will have write access to the file.
D. The sales group and market group and user jane and others will have write access to the file. Answer:
C

NO.12 Jane is about to edit a file with the vi editor. She executes the following command:
$ vi ./customer_sat.txt
Choose the vi editor mode that Jane will be using when the file is opened.
A. command mode
B. edit mode
C. last line mode
D. ex mode
Answer: A

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NO.13 Tina has executed the following command:
$ affiliate.sh 2>>/var/log/worklog
Choose the statement that is true concerning this command.
A. stdin is redirected to a file.
B. stderr is redirected to a file.
C. stdout is redirected to a file.
D. all output from the script is redirected to a file.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
Examine the exhibit. Choose the answer the best describes the 8th field of the output of an ls command.
A. file creation time
B. inode change time
C. last access time
D. last modify time
Answer: D

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NO.15 You have a default install of Solaris 10 on your desktop system. You are user tim. Examine the
following command and output.
$ ls -l project465.odt
-rw-r--r-- 1 tim tim 394 Apr 9 15:29 project465.odt
You need to allow another user access to write the file. You do not have access to the root
account. Which command can be used to grant write access to the file?
A. chown command
B. chgrp command
C. setfacl command
D. nischown command
Answer: C

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NO.16 Your logging into the system as user Val, you are notified upon login that you must change your user
password on the system. Your current password is 2co0lu! Choose the password that meets the
requirements for a user changing the password on a Solaris 10 system.
A. 2co0l4u
B. valiscol
C. 2C00L4u2
D. 321 123!
Answer: C

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NO.17 Val has gathered information about the data stored in her home directory using the following command
line.
$ du -sk * | sort -n | tail > file2
Which answer correctly describes what happens when the command is invoked?
A. The tail command redirects stdin to file2
B. The sort command redirects stdout to the du command
C. The stdout from the du command is sent to the sort command
D. The stderr from the tail command will be sent to file2
Answer: C

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows a listing of Jane's directory. Consider the first entry buttons. Choose the
commands that might have been used to create this file.
A. cp snippets buttons
B. ln gadget buttons
C. ln snippets buttons
D. ln search buttons
E. cp gadget buttons
F. ln -s snippets buttons
Answer: B

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NO.19 Jane is trying to configure the swat utility. The software and man pages are located in the /usr/sfw
directory. When Jane attempts to use the man command the following message appears:
$ man swat
No manual entry for swat.
Choose the command that Jane can execute to display the man page.?
A. man /usr/sfw/swat
B. man -f /usr/sfw/swat
C. man -M /usr/sfw/man swat
D. man -s 1M swat
Answer: C

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows information about data in Jane's home directory. Which answer describes where the
directory named dir1 is stored within the file system.
A. In the inode associated with directory dir1
B. In the directory file called dir1
C. In the ACL associated with dir1
D. In the directory file called widgets
E. In the inode associated with directory widgets
F. In the ACL associated with widgets
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-528

Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g Security Essentials)

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NO.1 David works as a Database Administrator for Gentech Inc. The company is using Oracle 11g as the
database server. David wants to adapt such a security option that will provide no application changes to
the database, built-in key management, and high performance to the database. Which security option
should he adopt to accomplish the task?
A. Database Vault
B. Label Security
C. Audit Vault
D. Advanced Security Option
Answer: D

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NO.2 David works as a Database Administrator for uCertify Inc. The company is using Oracle 11g as the
database server. David wants to adopt security options so as to protect the database of the company.
Which of the following security options should he adopt to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Database Vault
B. Chain of trust
C. Audit Vault
D. Advanced Security Option
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 You have a system installed with Oracle 11g. You are concerned about the security of the database
instances in your system. You plan to use Oracle Database Vault to create several components to
manage the security of the database instances. Which of the following components can be created using
Oracle Database Vault?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. RMAN
B. Realms
C. Factors
D. Command rules
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 Which method should be adopted to retrieve all those rows whose sensitive columns have a null value
and which are restricted by Virtual Private Database security?
A. Column masking
B. Access Control List
C. Transparent Tablespace Encryption
D. Transparent Data Encryption
Answer: A

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NO.5 Sam works as a Database Administrator for Gentech Inc. The company is using Oracle 11g as the
database server. Sam wants to protect the company's data by encrypting the physical data files created
on the operating system. Which of the following types of encryption should he use to accomplish the task?
A. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) for securefiles
B. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) for column
C. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) for tablespace
D. Network encryption
Answer: C

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NO.6 You work as a Database Administrator for uCertify Inc. The company uses Oracle 11g on its database
server. The server contains a database named "Company_Project_Details". The database is shared
among multiple departments of the company for regular updation. Looking at the security issues of the
database, you have been assigned the task to apply some security solution to the database.
To accomplish the task, you plan to apply Database Label Security on this database. Which of the
following components of the Database Label Security should you apply in order to secure this database?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Levels
B. Source database
C. Compartments
D. Groups
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 You are a Database Administrator in Dolliver Inc. Oracle 11g is installed as the database server in the
company. You want to protect data from privileged users through some preventive controls and also
secure the database transparently. Which of the following security options will you adopt to accomplish
the task?
A. Database Vault
B. Audit Vault
C. Advanced Security
D. Enterprise Manager Data Masking Pack
Answer: A

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NO.8 You have a system installed with Oracle 11g. You are concerned about the security of the database
instances in your system. You plan to use Oracle Database Vault to create several components to
manage the security of the database instances. Which of the following components can be created using
Oracle Database Vault? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Factors
B. Command rules
C. Realms
D. RMAN
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 Andrew works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses Oracle 11g as the
database server. Andrew has been assigned the task to apply a security feature to the database of the
organization to protect the database from insiders. This security feature should also mitigate several
security risks. Which of the following security features should he adopt to accomplish the task?
A. Database Vault
B. Advanced Security Option
C. Enterprise Data Masking Pack
D. Audit Vault
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following are the advantages of Oracle Database Vault?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It disables the separation of duty.
B. It controls access to database and application data by highly privileged users.
C. It imposes multi-factor authorization by the use of flexible business rules.
D. It enables the separation of duty.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.11 Which of the following components of Oracle Database Vault is a Java application that is built on top of
the Oracle Database Vault PL/SQL application programming interfaces (API)?
A. Oracle Database Vault Reporting and Monitoring Tools
B. Oracle Database Vault Administrator (DVA)
C. Oracle Database Vault DVSYS and DVF Schemas
D. Oracle Database Vault Access Control Components
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following options employs labeling concepts used by government and defense
organizations to protect sensitive information and to provide data separation?
A. Oracle Database Vault Security
B. Oracle Advanced Security
C. Oracle Audit Vault Security
D. Oracle Label Security
Answer: D

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NO.13 David works as a Database Administrator for Gentech Inc. The company is using Oracle 11g as the
database server. David wants to adapt such a security option that will provide no application changes to
the database, built-in key management, and high performance to the database. Which security option
should he adopt to accomplish the task?
A. Database Vault
B. Label Security
C. Audit Vault
D. Advanced Security Option
Answer: D

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NO.14 You work as a Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. The company uses Oracle 11g as the database
server. You have been asked to use an application that creates public and private key pairs and can be
also used for storage and management of certificate authority certificates. Which of the following
applications will you use to accomplish this task?
A. Oracle Wallet Manager
B. Oracle Connection Manager
C. Oracle Enterprise Manager
D. Oracle Net Manager
Answer: A

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NO.15 Sam works as a Database Administrator for uCertify Inc. The company is using Oracle 11g as the
database server. Sam wants to adopt a security feature on the database that enforces the security rules,
regardless of the way the data is accessed. Which of the following security features should he adopt to
accomplish the task?
A. Real Application Cluster (RAC)
B. Label Security
C. Enhanced security features with execution context
D. Virtual Private Database (VPD)
Answer: D

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NO.16 You are a Database Administrator in Dolliver Inc. Oracle 11g is installed as the database server in the
company. You want to protect data from privileged users through some preventive controls and also
secure the database transparently. Which of the following security options will you adopt to accomplish
the task?
A. Audit Vault
B. Database Vault
C. Advanced Security
D. Enterprise Manager Data Masking Pack
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following security options provides easy compliance by automating access control?
A. Oracle Database Vault
B. Oracle Data masking Pack
C. Oracle Advanced Security
D. Oracle Audit Vault
Answer: D

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NO.18 Andrew works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses Oracle 11g as the
database server and deals with the development of various database applications. During such
developments, production data is copied into other non-production environments. This leads to several
confidential risks. Andrew has been assigned the task to minimize the risk of handling such sensitive
information. Which pack of Enterprise Manager should he adopt to accomplish the task?
A. Oracle Diagnostic Pack
B. Oracle Data Masking Pack
C. Oracle Change Management Pack
D. Oracle Configuration Management Pack
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Data Masking Pack?
A. Secure High Performance Mask Execution
B. Comprehensive and Extensible Mask Library
C. Automated patching for Oracle products and the operating system
D. Sophisticated Masking Techniques
Answer: C

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NO.20 Andrew works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses Oracle 11g as the
database server and deals with the development of various database applications. During such
developments, production data is copied into other non-production environments. This leads to several
confidential risks. Andrew has been assigned the task to minimize the risk of handling such sensitive
information. Which pack of Enterprise Manager should he adopt to accomplish the task?
A. Oracle Diagnostic Pack
B. Oracle Configuration Management Pack
C. Oracle Data Masking Pack
D. Oracle Change Management Pack
Answer: C

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