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Exam Code: HP0-D21

Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP0-D21 HP Matrix Operating Environment)

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NO.1 How do you launch CloudSystem Matrix Versioning Tool in TS mode?
A. At the Onboard Administrator logon screen, enter the TS credentials specified in Readme file.
B. Launch the MatrixDGMUI.exe program by accessing the folder where you saved HP CloudSystem
Matrix Versioning Tool files.
C. At the Onboard Administrator logon screen, enter T and S while pressing the Alt and Shift Keys.
D. Launch Matrix DTS.exe program.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which turnkey HP Converged Infrastructure solution meets the following requirements?
Automated deployment and protection of virtualized applications Choice of virtual and utility store
with multi-tenancy, automatic management, and thin provisioning Optimized server and desktop
virtualization Investment protection with a clear upgrade path to the cloud
A. VirtualSystem
B. CloudSystem
C. StorageSystem
D. AppSystem
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which key infrastructure management challenges do HP Converged infrastructure solutions
solve? (Select two)
A. Inability of traditional IT to keep up with business demands
B. Need to shift IT expenditure from operations to innovations
C. Resistance to adopting service-oriented architectures
D. Show adoption of virtualization technologies
E. Aging workforces with outdated skills
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 You are using a central management server (CMS) as a DHCP server for a deployment network
and as a DNS server for a management network and to forward unknown requests to the ISP DNS
server. What is a requirement for this CMS?
A. It must have a static IP on the management network
B. It must have a dynamic IP on the deployment network
C. It must bind to the deployment network
D. A must bind DNS to the ISP network
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a requirement when performing a bare-metal deployment using Insight Control for
Microsoft Systems Center?
A. Insight Contract server deployment
B. Insight Control server migration
C. ProLiant Gen8 rack-mount server
D. ProLiant G7 server blade
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which capability does an HP CloudSystem Matrix solution provide?
A. Storage automation of HP arrays
B. Unified services management across private, hybrid and public cloud environments and
traditional IT
C. Infrastructure provisioning, monitoring, patching, and compliance management
D. Advanced database automatic with log files management
Answer: B

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NO.7 What can you use to free up an HP Integrity license from HP Infrastructure Orchestration?
A. vslicense command
B. HP SIM License Manager
C. vseassist command
D. CloudSystem Matrix Versioning Toll
Answer: C

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NO.8 You installed the Pro module of Insight Control System Center Virtual Machine Manager.
Which additional functionality does this provide?
A. VMware server management support
B. Automatic migration of virtual machines when a hardware pre-failure alert is received
C. Automatic migration of virtual connect profiles when a hardware pre-failure alert is received
D. Support for Agentless management of ProLiant Gen8 servers
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-Z24

Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Networking Solutions)

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NO.1 A customer has a multivendor network and wants a single point of contact for support. After
talking
to the customer, you think the customer would also be interested in a dedicated phone number for
support cells and a guarantee that HP Support would respond immediately to problems that
interrupt network services. Which care pack would you recommend for this custom or?
A. HP Proactive 24
B. HP Proactive Select
C. HP Support Plus 24
D. HP Critical Service
Answer: D

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NO.2 Many hp products come with a lifetime warranty that last as long as the customer owns the
products. Which products provide the lifetime warranty? (Choose three)
A. hp 2910
B. hp 5920
C. hp msm400
D. hp msm 466
E. hp sms766
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 What architecture does HP recommend you lead with for WAN acceleration at a large branch?
A. HP MSR50 with WAN acceleration feature
B. HP MSR30 with WAN acceleration feature
C. HP MSR20 with WAN acceleration feature
D. Riverbed Steelhead WAN acceleration
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which HP products are positioned at the core of an HP FlexFabric solution for a mid-sized
business customer? (Select two.)
A. 7500 Series switches
B. 5830 Series switches
C. 5820 Series switches
D. 12500 Series switches
E. 10500 Series switches
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 The MSM760 and MSM765 zl can manage how many wireless access points?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Answer: D

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NO.6 Companies will increasingly support corporate applications on personal devices, which users
will
access from both wired and wireless connections. How will this trend affect mid-sized businesses?
(Select two.)
A. They will need to ensure users have a seamless user experience no matter how they access
the network
B. They will need to implement virtualized machines to host these applications in a private cloud or
purchase these services from a public cloud provider.
C. They will need to encrypt communications between the personal devices end the network
devices that provide either wired or wireless access.
D. They will need to Implement Identity-based security, rather than port-based security
E. They will need to support additional protocols such as Voice over IP and Border Gateway
Protocol on their networks to enable this access
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which switch series would you recommend if your customer wanted to simplify branch
management by converging network and server services in the company’s datacenter?
A. HP 2520 Switch Series
B. HP 2620 Switch Series
C. HP 2910 al Switch Series
D. HP 5400 zl Switch Series
Answer: D

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NO.8 The 12500 Switch Series provides five-nines availability. What does this mean?
A. A 12500 switch should experience no more than 45 seconds of downtime a year.
B. A 12500 switch should experience no more than 5 minutes and 15 seconds of downtime a year.
C. A 12500 switch should experience no more than 45 minutes of downtime a year
D. A 12500 switch should experience no more than 59 minutes of downtime a year.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-K33

Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Storage Solutions - Exam)

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NO.1 Many of your customers' storage systems are growing at over 50% per year. What is the
major
data protection issue with this level of data growth rate?
A. More operators are required to perform and manage backup
B. The backup window and SLAs are tending to remain the same
C. The bandwidth of typical remote office WANs is too small
D. The backup devices are not large enoughto hold the new data
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which industry standard API mechanism for creating advanced web applications have
mainstream
web organizations like Google, Twitter, and Facebook adopted?
A. HTML
B. REST
C. SOAP
D. HTTPS
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your customer's CIO is advocating a move to client virtualization. Which storage criterion is
NOT
relevant for a successful deployment?
A. Storage needs to be tailored to client visualization to deliver an effective ROI
B. Storage needs to be high performance
C. Storage needs to be highly available to meet client needs
D. Storage needs to be in a larger datacenter
Answer: D

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NO.4 Analysts state that 50% of storage is connected to a virtual machine. What is a key implication
of
this fact for your sales campaigns?
A. It is too late to sell storage for virtualized servers to half the market.All sales campaigns should
focus on selling backup software to these clients
B. Users with traditional storage installations connected to virtual machines will be discovering the
limitations of their existing environments
C. The sales approach will be the same across the board - HP Converged Storage is the most
scalable and cost-effective platform for client virtualization
D. The only opportunity is to consider compliance needs with organizations that have already
onnected disk storage to virtual machines
Answer: C

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NO.5 What does HP guarantee with HP 3PAR StoreServ that could help customers manage the
impact
of Microsoft Database Availability Groups?
A. a reduction in storage capacity requirements by 50%
B. a reduction in storage capacity requirements by 90%
C. a doubling in storage capacity requirements
D. a doubling in server density
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which HP service could you recommend to a customer that has selected their HP StoreAll
system
and arranged delivery?
A. HP Storage Modernization Service
B. HP Storage Impact Analysis Service
C. HP Storage Efficiency Analysis Service
D. HP Enterprise NAS Implementation Service
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which group in customer organizations has proved to be the strongest advocate for client
virtualization programs and should be targeted to identify the potential storage needs of a client
virtualization project?
A. CFO and Finance team
B. CIO and senior IT management
C. IT operations team
D. End Users
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your enterprise customer is planning to build a virtualized Exchange 2010 system with
VMware.
They are considering VMware vMotion to help manage workload rebalancing across multiple
systems when adding storage capacity. What are key reasons why the customer should also
consider HP 3PAR Peer Motion? (Select two.)
A. HP 3PAR Peer Motion minimizes downtime through a central synchronized architecture that
provides mission critical availability.
B. HP 3PAR Peer Motion enables non-disruptive movement of data between multiple HP
StoreServ systems.
C. HP 3PAR Peer Motion uses a high performance Block Migration process that has been
optimized for HP ProLiant Gen8 servers.
D. HP 3PAR Peer Motion enables non-disruptive movement of data between HP 3PAR StoreServ
and any other 3rd party SAN environment
E. HP 3PAR Peer Motion can be combined with HP 3PAR Thin Persistence software to reduce
storage I/O and capacity requirements.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Your customer will achieve which three principle business benefits by deploying HP StoreOnce
technology?
A. Eliminate OpEx costs, meet agreed business SLAs. and manage data growth
B. Save money, meet agreed business SLAs. and manage remote office backup
C. Reduce business risk, meet agreed business SLAs. and reduce backup costs
D. Reduce business nsk. meet compliance needs, and improve backup flexibility
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the power of HP StoreOnce deduplication and Catalyst technology?
A. It enables deduplication tasks to be distributed across the whole information protection
infrastructure including remote offices and the datacenter
B. It provides best in class deduplication in the main data center with 7x the backup performance
of the competition
C. It provides deduplication only at the application server which means application servers can be
restored rapidly
D. It works with HP Data Protector, which means it has an industry leadership position in
enterprise backup
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C_HANATEC_1

Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP HANA 1.0)

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NO.1 Which of the following are recovery types in SAP HANA database? (Choose two)
A. Recovery with incremental backup
B. Recovery until cancel
C. Full recovery
D. Point in time recovery
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which user must have SELECT privilege with the grant option on the data schema?
A. <SID>ADM
B. SYSTEM
C. _SYS_BIC
D. _SYS_REPO
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the connection type for communication between the SAP LT Replication Server and the non-SAP source system?
A. TRFC
B. Web service
C. QRFC
D. Database
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following must be running to view SAP HANA Diagnosis Files if the SAP HANA database is offline?
A. sapstartsrv
B. SMD Agent
C. r3trans
D. disp+work
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which actions to you need to perform to configure SAP HANA single sign-on?
A. Generate and import X.509 certificate
B. Generate and import PSE key
C. Generate and import Kerberos keytab
D. Generate and import SSH rsa key
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the purpose of the save point process in SAP HANA?
A. Save logs to persistent storage when a transaction is committed.
B. Free up memory by saving less frequently used data to persistent storage.
C. Save changed data and logs to persistent storage on a regular basis.
D. Save changed data to persistent storage when a transaction is committed.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C-TADM51702

Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Associate - System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.0 EhP2)

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NO.1 What can you schedule with transaction SM36 (Define Background Job) as a step within a
background job in AS ABAP-based SAP systems? (Choose three)
A. External programs
B. ABAP transactions
C. Function modules
D. Executable ABAP programs
E. External commands
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 Which of the following activities can be carried out using the Web administration interface of
the
SAP Web Dispatcher?
A. Upgrade the SAP Web Dispatcher.
B. Connect the SAP Web Dispatcher to a directory server.
C. Install the SAP Web Dispatcher.
D. Display parameter settings for the SAP Web Dispatcher.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are running an AS ABAP-based SAP system consisting of a central instance and one dialog
instance.
Where does an RFC gateway run?
A. As part of the ABAP dispatcher
B. On both instances
C. As part of the Internet Communication Manager (ICM)
D. Only on the central instance
Answer: B

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NO.4 Your company is running an AS ABAP-based SAP System. The employees use SAP GUI for
Windows. You want to enable front end printing for all employees which are using the SAP
system.
What are possible steps to fulfill this requirement?
A. Create an output device with the host spool access method "G" and assign the host printer
"__DEFAULT" to it.
B. Create an output device with the host spool access method "S" and assign the device type
"SAP_SPRINT" to it.
C. Create an output device with access method "LOCL" for each local front end printer.
D. Create an output device "TemSe" and a batch job which redirects the output requests to the
local PCs periodically.
Answer: A

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NO.5 How can you determine the current store location for TemSe spool objects?
A. Check the table space PSAPSPOOL in the database.
B. Check the environment variable DIR_SAPSPOOL.
C. Check the value of the system parameter rspo/store_location.
D. Check the value of the SAP Spooler Vault parameter.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statements regarding user management in an AS ABAP-based SAP system are correct?
(Choose two)
A. A user of type "Dialog" cannot be used for background processing.
B. If you forgot your password you can use the "User -> New Password" menu path on the logon
screen to notify the system administrator that you are requesting a new password.
C. A user with user type "System" cannot log on to the system by using the SAP GUI.
D. SAP recommends assigning authorization profiles via the assignment of roles to the user
master data.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Which process sequence describes the import steps of ABAP transport requests?
A. ABAP Dictionary import –> ABAP Dictionary activation –> Main import –> Generation of ABAP
programs and screens
B. Main import –> Execution of user-defined activities (XPRAs) –> ABAP Dictionary activation –>
Generation of ABAP programs and screens
C. Main import –> Generation of ABAP programs and screens –> ABAP Dictionary import –>
ABAP Dictionary activation
D. ABAP Dictionary import –> Execution of user-defined activities (XPRAs) –> Main import –>
ABAP Dictionary activation
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following checks are useful for database performance monitoring? (Choose
three)
A. Check the data buffer quality.
B. Check the shared cursor cache for expensive SQL statements.
C. Check the filling degree of tablespaces.
D. Check for tables with more than 100 extents.
E. Check if the Optimizer statistics are refreshed regularly.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.9 You are running an AS ABAP-based SAP system.
Which of the following can you achieve by using operation modes? (Choose two)
A. You can define the number of work processes reserved for RFC communication.
B. You can define the number of background work processes reserved for jobs of class "A".
C. You can switch background work processes to dialog work processes.
D. You can switch spool work processes to dialog work processes.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Which data sources are supported by the User Management Engine (UME) of AS Java?
(Choose
three)
A. The database of the AS Java
B. An UDDI provider
C. A client of an AS ABAP-based SAP system
D. A file on operating system level (secure store)
E. A Directory Server (via LDAP)
Answer: A,C,E

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Exam Code: 133-S-713.4

Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Implementation Exam (beta))

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NO.1 Which parameter in master.cfg is required to ensure correct agent capacity on a Proactive Contact
system?
A.PORTS
B.LINEASSIGN
C.QUOTA
D.MAXHIDSLOTS
Answer:D

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NO.2 Where is the location of the local policy files on the Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X server?
A./opt/avaya/pds/config
B./opt/avaya/pds/openssl
C./opt/avaya/pds/etc
D./etc
Answer:B

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NO.3 Which Avaya software is used to communicate between Communication Manager and Avaya
Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.Avaya CT
B.AES
C.CMS
D.MAPD
Answer:B

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NO.4 Which Avaya software is used to provide consolidated reporting with Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X and
other Avaya communication solutions?
A.CMS
B.WebLM
C.Avaya IQ
D.Analyst
Answer:C

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NO.5 Where are greetings, such as the pre-recorded messages an agent hears when they log in or the
messages played to a customer during a virtual job, stored in a Proactive Contact with CTI solution?
A.Avaya CM
B.AES Server
C.Proactive Contact CPU
D.Proactive Contact Digital Switch
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which two commands are used to configure the cti_passwd.cfg file for an Avaya Proactive Contact with
CTI with Agent Blending? (Choose two.)
A.cti_passwd
B.cti_passwd
C.cti_passwd -b
D.cti_passwd
Answer:C D

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NO.7 You are configuring a Proactive Contact 4.X solution for your customer. They do not use the same result
codes that the dialer uses. They use a short four-character description. Which Supervisor function should
you use to ensure that your customer's host will understand the Avaya completion codes?
A.translate
B.merge
C.fill
D.format
Answer:A

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NO.8 To track information being sent between the agent interface and the Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X
server, which file should be accessed on the client side to verify what is happening?
A.Moagent32.log
B.Moagent32.dll
C.PCagent32.log
D..log
Answer:A

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NO.9 Which configuration file on the CPU contains digital switch port addressing information?
A.locale.cfg
B.opmon.cfg
C.dgswitch.cfg
D.phonefmt.cfg
Answer:C

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NO.10 Under which two sections in Editor do you set up Record Specific Messaging? (Choose two.)
A.Contact Management
B.Messages and Scripts
C.Jobs
D.Calling Lists
Answer:B D

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NO.11 Which Proactive Contact component allows clients residing off the dialer to obtain events and real-time
data from the dialer?
A.Event Service
B.STATSPUMP
C.Historical Data Service Component (HDSC)
D.Dialer Command and Control Service (DCCS)
Answer:A

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NO.12 The local CA certificate for Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X agent is stored in which location?
A.password file
B.Microsoft Certificate Store
C.registry
D.My Documents
Answer:B

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NO.13 Which voicemsg.cfg setup is correct to use on an Avaya Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.23:pf_msg1:41031:Female:Outbound:Voice:pf_msg1
B.14:41039:mwait1:Male:Outbound:Voice:mwait1
C.41017:19:infwait3:Female:Inbound:Voice:41017
D.189:virt1m:Male:Virtual:Voice:41026
Answer:A

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NO.14 Which Avaya CM circuit pack is necessary if the customer expects to do predictive dialing on Proactive
Contact with CTI?
A.TN744 Call classifier
B.TN2602 Media interface
C.TN799 C-LAN
D.TN464 DS1 Interface
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which Proactive Contact 4.X hardware component in a hard dialer setup performs dialing functions
and call progress analysis, plays messages, and bridges agents to called parties?
A.UPS
B.CPU
C.digital switch
D.access server
Answer:C

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NO.16 Which parameter heading is correct to use in the opmon.cfg file for Avaya Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.DIALBACK
B.DIALIN
C.SOFTDIAL
D.DEDHEAD
Answer:C

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NO.17 A supervisor reports that the data in Internet Monitor is only updating every two minutes. The
supervisor requests the update time be changed to every 30 seconds. Which configuration field in
master.cfg must be changed?
A.IMONDISPLAY
B.SURFREFRESH
C.IMONREFRESH
D.AUTORELPOLLTIME
Answer:C

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NO.18 Given the following command: icall %12 %13 1 16144691010 Which function in swit is performed by
this command?
A.It tests incoming channel 12 by placing a call to 16144691010 using outpulse rule 13.
B.It provides a monitoring channel 12 to listen to channel 13 for a call placed to 16144691010.
C.It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 13 to 16144691010 using outpulse rule 12.
D.It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 12 to 16144691010 using outpulse rule 13.
Answer:D

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NO.19 You are working with a third-party to integrate a call recording utility with Proactive Contact. The
technician for the third-party is not able to see events from Proactive Contact. Which command would you
type on the Proactive Contact command line to see all statistics from Event Services?
A.enclient -S $NS
B.enclient -A
C.enserver -a
D.enserver -S $NS
Answer:A

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NO.20 How does Proactive Contact move digitized messages from the CPU to the Large Port Voice Card
(LPVC)?
A.Remote Copy (RCP)
B.Network File System (NFS)
C.File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
D.Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 132-S-815

Exam Name: Avaya (Specialist Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implement and Support Elective Exam)

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NO.1 .Which two statements are true about anti-virus software on Modular Messaging with a Message
Storage Server (MSS)? (Choose two.)
A. The MSS already has its own anti-virus software.
B. Anti-virus software should not be configured to perform scans each time a file is accessed.
C. Once anti-virus software has been installed the Modular Messaging system will update it
automatically.
D. Avaya recommends that the customer install anti-virus software on each Avaya Messaging
Application Server (MAS) and any Supplementary Server.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 .According to Avaya documentation, which step must be taken to connect the cables supplied with
a digital set emulation board to the PBX?
A. Connect the board using the provided RJ-48C (Ethernet) cable.
B. Connect the installed boards to one end of a standard RJ-11 tip/ring cable.
C. Connect the board using the provided PBX station interface D/82JCT-U cable.
D. Connect the male end of the provided CT bus cable to the top of each port board.
Answer: C

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NO.3 .In what task will the Avaya Messaging Application Server (MAS) Port Monitor be useful?
A. verifying that the MAS is able to communicate over IP ports to the MSS
B. determining the digits dialed by an outbound call from the MAS's telephony port
C. verifying that a test call arrives on a telephony port of the MAS that you want to test
D. determining whether communication originating from the MAS's IP port employs encryption
Answer: C

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NO.4 .In an R3.1 Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MM MSS), in what location can a user
determine if Messaging is running and also the state of Internet Messaging and Enhanced List
Application Software?
A. Server Information > Server Status
B. Reports > System Evaluation Reports
C. This information is available from several screens.
D. System Control and System Status > System Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.5 .Before requesting a license for a newly installed Modular Messaging system, which information is
required from the on-site installer?
A. Voice Mail Domain Name
B. Voice Mail Domain Identifier (aka VMD ID or Host ID)
C. IP addresses of all servers in the Voice Mail Domain
D. Local Administration Account names and passwords for all Messaging Application Servers
(MASs)
Answer: B

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NO.6 .Which two actions should be performed to upgrade a customer's system from Modular Messaging
Release R3.0 to R3.1, using the existing servers for the Message Storage erver (MSS) and the
Message Application Server (MASs). (Choose two.)
A. Uninstall and re-installRealSpeak software on the MASs
B. Upgrade Dialogic drives if Dialogic port boards are in the MAS
C. Install MAS boot image (4 DVDs) to upgrade to Microsoft Windows 2003 Server
D. Install the Pre-upgrade and Backup Verification tool to check the health of the Release 3.0
system
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 .The customer has an existing Modular Messaging (MM) system with a Message Storage System
(MSS), which was installed with MM release 1.1. They are upgrading to MM 3.0 and adding an
Avaya Messaging Application Server (MAS) to provide more port capacity. The customer wants to
retain their existing MAS. They have T1 Dialogic boards. They currently have Aria and Audix TUIs
implemented for their subscribers.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. They must upgrade all dialogic boards.
B. They must upgrade all MASs to S3500 servers.
C. They must consider impact of TUIs on port capacity.
D. The new MAS will have only two slots for port boards.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 To conduct a multiple Avaya Message Application Server (MAS) installation, where in the Voice
Mail Domain must the Avaya Mailbox Monitor and the Message Waiting Indicator (MWI) services
be activated?
A. in the first MAS
B. in different MASs
C. on the same MAS
D. in at least two MASs
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two statements about domain names are true for Modular Messaging? (Choose two.)
A. All domain names must be unique.
B. The Voice Mail Domain (VMD) is identical to the Windows Domain Name.
C. The Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and Voice Mail Domain (VMD) names must be
alphanumeric.
D. The private Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) for the Message Application Server (MAS) is
used only on the private network.
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 .Which action must be taken on an Message Storage Server (MSS) to implement additional
administrator logins?
A. Buy additional administrator seats from Avaya.
B. Create custom roles to assign to the administrator logins.
C. Set up an Authentication, Authorization and Accounting (AAA) server to authenticate the
administrator logins.
D. Configure the administrator account to authenticate locally or via an Authentication,
Authorization and Accounting (AAA) server.
Answer: D

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NO.11 .Which three are manual steps required to upgrade Message Networking from Release 2.0 to
Release 3.1? (Choose three.)
A. Perform an attended system backup.
B. Run the pre-upgrade tool to help plan for the upgrade.
C. Remove the switch integration software from the MN 2.0 system.
D. Use the backup verification tool to ensure the quality of the backup.
E. Insert the MN 3.1 DVD and run Software Update on the 2.0 system.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.12 .Before going to a customer site to begin installing a Modular Messaging R3.1 system, which three
items should be obtained from support.avaya.com? (Choose three.)
A. Configuration Notes
B. System planning form
C. Outlook Client software
D. Customer account information
E. Supplementary Server software
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.13 Which statement is true about installing a Modular Messaging with the Message Storage Server
(MSS) into the Corporate Windows Domain?
A. The only step required is to select "Join the Corporate Windows Domain" in the Data Collection
Too (DCT).
B. The MSS TCP/IP networking form must be configured with the appropriate Corporate Windows
Domain values.
C. "Join the Corporate Windows Domain" must be selected in the Data Collection Tool (DCT) and
on the Message Storage Server Windows Domain Setup administration form.
D. "Join the Corporate Windows Domain" is done manually on the MAS after the configuration
wizard is run, and then done manually on the MSS using the Windows Domain Setup form.
Answer: C

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NO.14 .Before beginning to configure and test the port boards in the Avaya Messaging Application Server
(MAS), a user must first obtain the proper configuration note for the particular PBX and integration.
Where can the proper configuration note be found?
A. Help screens
B. Installation Guide
C. MAS documentation CD
D. http:\\support.avaya.com
Answer: D

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NO.15 .What specific documentation is needed for an installer to correctly integrate a Message
Networking Server with a PBX? (Choose two.)
A. completed Modular Messaging planning form
B. completed Message Networking planning form
C. Avaya Communication Manager Networking Guide
D. Switch Connections Supported for Message Networking
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 .Which three are manual steps required to upgrade from Modular Messaging pre-3.0 to Modular
Messaging 3.x when the solution uses the Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS)? (Choose
three.)
A. using the backup verification tool to ensure the quality of the backup
B. running the Data Collection Tool (DCT) on a Message Application Server (MAS)
C. performing a backup of the MSS while the MSS is providing messaging services
D. performing a backup of the MSS while the MSS messaging services have been stopped
E. performing a backup of the Message Application Server (MAS) onto the MAS's DVD drive.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.17 .Which IP address is acceptable for use on the private network for an installation of Modular
Messaging R3.x with the Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS)?
A. 10.255.255.255
B. 168.192.1.250
C. 172.31.1.245
D. 183.81.168.1
Answer: C

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NO.18 .Which is used to find port statistics in a Modular Messaging (MM) system?
A. Reporting Tool
B. Port Monitor Tool
C. Subscriber Options
D. Operational History Viewer
Answer: A

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NO.19 .Which two options are presented after starting the Data Collection Tool (DCT)? (Choose two.)
A. create a new file
B. analyze existing system
C. deploy new configuration
D. delete current configuration
Answer: A,B

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NO.20 .Which three line cards are used with Modular Messaging? (Choose three.)
A. H.323
B. Analog
C. DLC-16
D. T1/E1-QSIG
E. Set Emulation
Answer: B,D,E

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