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Exam Code: 070-687J

Exam Name: Microsoft (Configuring Windows 8 (70-687日本語版))

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NO.1 Windows8 を 実行 ポ ータ ブ ルコ ン ピュー タ にビ デ オカ ード のド ラ ゗バ を ゕッ プデ ート
してください。
ユーザーは、 外部モニタ、 外部モニタを複製、 ポータブルコンピュータの画 面に表示するポ
ータブルコンピュータを接続したとき。
あなたは、 ユーザーが外部モニタに追加のデスクトップ領域を表示できることを確認する必
要があります。
あなたはどうすればいいですか？
A.DISPLAY ス゗ッチを 実行する/ コマンドを拡張します。
B.Windows 8 の゗ンス トールメデゖゕからコンピュータを起動して、システム゗メージの回
復を実行します。
C. 以前のバージョンに ビデオカードのドラ゗バをロールバックします。
D. SIC/ scannow コマン ドを実行します。
Answer: A

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NO.2 あなたの会社のネットワーク内のク ラ ゗ゕントコンピュー タ を管理することがで き ま
す。ネットワークは、Active Directory ドメ゗ンサービス（AD DS ） ドメ゗ンが含まれていま
す。
人的資源の従業員は、 （HR）部門は、新し い Windows8 エンター プラ゗ズコンピュータを取
得している。 人事部門の基幹業務 （LOB ） は、Windows のストゕゕプリというタ゗ムシート
が Windows ストゕで は使用できません。
あなたは、 人事部門のすべての従業員が新しいコンピュータ上でタ゗ムシートを使用できる
ことを確認する必要があります。
あなたはどうすればいいですか。
A. 各コンピュータで Microsoft のゕカウント をログオンします。
B. 各コンピュータで ローカルゕカウントをログオンします。
C. 各コンピュータ上 のサ゗ドローデ ゖングプロダクトキーをゕクテゖブにします。
D. Windows ゕプリケーション認定キットを゗ンストールしてから実行します。
Answer: A

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NO.3 一つの会社は Active Directory ドメ゗ンサービス（AD DS ）ド メ゗ンを持っています。
すべてのクラ゗ゕントコンピュータは、Windows8 を実行します。ローカルプリンタは、ク
ラ゗ゕントコンピュータから共有されている。
クラ゗ゕントコンピュータのユーザーは、 Sales AD のセキュリテゖグ ループのメンバである。
あなたは、 販売セキュリテゖグ ループのメンバーがプリントキュー内の文書の順番を変更で
きると同時にプリンタ共有を削除することはできないことを確認する必要があります。
あなたは販売グループにどの権限を付与する必要がありますか？
A. キューを管理する
B. このプリンタを管 理する
C. 印刷
D. スプーラを管理す る
E. ドキュメントを管理する
Answer: E

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NO.4 Windows8 を実行 しているポータブルコンピュータは、 モバ゗ルブロードバンド接続を
使用しています。
コンピューターが正常に企業のワ゗ヤレスネットワークに接続されていないだけで
Windows の更新プログラムをダウンロードします。
コ ン ピ ュ ー タ が 自 動 的 に 企 業 の ワ ゗ ヤ レ ス ネ ッ ト ワ ー ク に 接 続 し て い る 間 に Windows
Update を使用して更新 プログラムをダウンロードされることを確認する必要があります。
Windows8 を実行して いるポータブルコンピ ュータは、企業のワ゗ヤレスネットワークのた
めのモバ゗ルブロードバンド接続を使用しています。
また、 コンピュータは、 有線の企業ネットワーク接続を備えています。 どちらのネットワー
クに接続すると、 コンピュータが正常に Windows の更新プログラムをダウンロードします。
また、 企業のワ゗ヤレスネットワーク接続に接続しているときに、 コンピュータが自動的に
Windows Update を使 用して更新プログラムをダウンロードしていることを確認する必要が
あります。
あなたはどうすればいいですか。
A. 指定゗ントラネットの Microsoft 更新サ ービスの場所ローカルグループポリシーを設定し
ます。
B. 企業のワ゗ヤレス ネットワークで量ることを設定します。
C. 企業のワ゗ヤレス ネットワークを非従量制に設定します。
D. Windows フゔ゗ゕウォールの接続セキュリテゖ規則を設定します。
Answer: C

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NO.5 同社は Windows8 を実行しているクラ゗ゕントコンピュータを持っています。財務部
門の社 員は フゔ ゗ル を C ：\ フ ゔ゗ ナン ス デゖレ クト リに 保存 し ます。 フゔ ゗ル 履歴 に なり
ました。
財 務 部 門 の 従 業 員 が フ ゔ ゗ ル 履 歴 を 使 用 し て 前 の バ ー ジ ョ ン に フ ゔ ゗ ル を 復 元 し よ う と し
ますが、フゔ゗ルを復元することはできません。
あなたはフゔ゗ルの履歴が使用できない理由を確立し、 それに将来に利用可能であることを
確認する必要があります。
あなたはどの 2 つのゕクションを実行する必要がありますか。 （それぞれの正しい答えは、
ソリューションの一部を紹介します。2 つ選択してください。 ）
A. フゔ゗ル履歴のドラ゗ブを変更します。
B. フゔ゗ル履歴のバ ックゕップログを確認します。
C. ラ゗ブラリにフゔ ゗ルを移 動します。
D. ボリュームシャド ウコピーサービスを開始します。
Answer: AB

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NO.6 デスクトップ コ ンピュータに Windows8 を゗ンストールすると、サードパーテゖ製の
デスクトップゕプリケーションを゗ンストールします。
あ な た が 別 の サ ー ド パ ー テ ゖ 製 の デ ス ク ト ッ プ ゕ プ リ を ゗ ン ス ト ー ル す る ま で は コ ン ピ ュ
ータが最適に実行されます。
あなただけの、 最近゗ンストールされたサードパーテゖ製デスクトップゕプリケーションを
削除する必要があります。
あなたは、システム修復デゖスクからコンピュータを起動します。
あなたはどちらのトラブルシューテゖングオプションを使用すべきですか。
A. システム゗メージを回復します
B. すべてのものを削 除して Windows を゗ ンストールします
C. システムをリスト ゕします
D. あなたのフゔ゗ル に影響を与えることなく、あなたの PC をリフレッシュします
Answer: C

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NO.7 一つの会社はは Windows8 を実行しているクラ゗ゕントコンピュータを持っていま
す。すべてのクラ゗ゕントコンピュータで、Internet Explorer があり ます。
- 互換表示オプションで表示゗ントラネットサ゗トが有効になっており、
-Microsoft のオプショ ンからダウンロード更新された互換性リストが無効になっています。
企業の Web サ゗トは、Internet Explorer の以 前のバージョン用に設計されました。
クラ゗ゕントコンピュータ上で見た場合、 企業のウェブサ゗ト上のメニューや画像が場違い
に表示 されます。
あなたは企業の Web サ゗トは、否定的にすることなく、クラ゗ゕントコンピュータ上に正
しく表示されていることを確認する必要があります。
あなたはどうすればいいですか。
A. 手動で互換表示設定に企業の Web サ゗トを追加します。
B. デゖスプレ゗の互換 表示オプションですべての Web サ゗トを有効にします。
C. [ 互換表示] オプションで表示゗ントラネットサ゗トを無効にします。
D. 手動でマ゗クロソ フトからの更新された互換性リストをダウンロードしてください。
Answer: A

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NO.8 あなたの会社の ネットワークのための新しい Windows8 タブレットを購入する予定で
す。
あなたはタブレットユーザーは Windows 8 のスナップ機能を使用することができることを
確認する必要があります。
タブレットを選ぶ際にどのハードウェゕの仕様を満たす必要がありますか？
A.1366 x 768 以上の画 面解像 度をサポートするモニタとビデオゕダプタ
B. 少なくとも 3 つの同時タッチをサポートしているモニター
C. 少なくとも 5 つの同時タッチをサポートしているモニター
D.1024 x 768 以上の画 面解像度をサポートするモニタとビデオゕダプタ
Answer: A

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Explanation:
http://windows.microsoft.com/en-US/windows-8 /snap-apps#1TC=t1

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Exam Code: PMI-RMP

Exam Name: PMI (PMI Risk Management Professional)

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NO.1 Jane is the project manager of the GBB project for her company. In the current project a vendor has
offered the project a ten percent discount based if they will order 100 units for the project. It is possible
that the GBB Project may need the 100 units, but the cost of the units is not a top priority for the project.
Jane documents the offer and tells the vendor that they will keep the offer in mind and continue with the
project as planned. What risk response has been given in this project?
A. Acceptance
B. Enhance
C. Exploiting
D. Sharing
Answer: A

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NO.2 Kelly is the project manager of the BHH project for her organization. She is completing the risk
identification process for this portion of her project. Which one of the following is the only thing that the
risk identification process will create for Kelly?
A. Risk register
B. Risk register updates
C. Change requests
D. Project document updates
Answer: A

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NO.3 You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several
stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share
information on the project risks?
A. Risk Management Plan
B. Stakeholder management strategy
C. Resource Management Plan
D. Communications Management Plan
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are the project manager of the GHE Project. You have identified the following risks with the
characteristics as shown in the following figure: How much capital should the project set aside for the risk
contingency reserve?
A. $142,000
B. $41,750
C. $23,750
D. $232,000
Answer: C

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NO.5 Virginia is the project manager for her organization. She has hired a subject matter expert to interview
the project stakeholders on certain identified risks within the project. The subject matter expert will assess
the risk event with what specific goal in mind?
A. To determine the level of probability and impact for each risk event
B. To determine the bias of the risk event based on each person interviewed
C. To determine the probability and cost of the risk event
D. To determine the validity of each risk event
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project for your company. You have completed qualitative and
quantitative analysis of your identified project risks and you would now like to find an approach to increase
project opportunities and to reduce threats within the project. What project management process would
best help you?
A. Monitor and control project risks
B. Create a risk governance approach
C. Create the project risk register
D. Plan risk responses
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are working with Anna on your project to determine and map the probability distributions of risk
within the project. You have indicated that you will use the uniform distribution method for a portion of the
project. Which part of your project is most likely to have a uniform risk distribution?
A. Late completion stages of a project
B. Project phases that deal with "cutover" technologies
C. Early concept stage of design
D. Project initiating
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are a risk auditor for your company. You are reviewing the contract types a project manager has
used in her project. Of the following, which contract type has the most risk for the project manager as a
buyer?
A. Cost plus percentage of costs
B. Time and material
C. Cost plus incentive fee
D. Fixed-price, incentive fee
Answer: A

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NO.9 John works as a project manager for ABD project. He and his team, are working on the following
activities:
Relative ranking or priority list of project risks
Watchlists of low priority risk
Trends in Qualitative Risk Analysis results
On which of the following processes is John working on?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Answer: A

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NO.10 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You want to create a visual diagram, which can depict
the resources that will be used within the project. Which of the following diagrams will you create to
accomplish the task?
A. Roles and responsibility matrix
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. RACI chart
Answer: C

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NO.11 Frank is the project manager of the NHQ project for his company. Frank is working with the project
team, key stakeholders, and several subject matter experts on risks dealing with the new materials in the
project. Frank wants to utilize a risk analysis method that will help the team to make decisions in the
presence of the current uncertainty surrounding the new materials. Which risk analysis approach can
Frank use to create an approach to make decisions in the presence of uncertainty?
A. Monte Carlo Technique
B. Qualitative risk analysis process
C. Quantitative risk analysis process
D. Delphi Technique
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which risk response is acceptable for both positive and negative risk events?
A. Transferring
B. Acceptance
C. Sharing
D. Enhancing
Answer: B

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NO.13 Jenny is the project manager of the NHJ Project for her company. She has identified several positive
risk events within the project and she thinks these events can save the project time and money. You, a
new team member wants to know that how many risk responses are available for a positive risk event.
What will Jenny reply to you?
A. Four
B. Three
C. Seven
D. Acceptance is the only risk response for positive risk events.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several
subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process. During this process she and the
project team uncover several risks events that were not previously identified. What should Jenny do with
these risk events?
A. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
B. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
C. The events should be entered into the risk register.
D. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
Answer: C

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NO.15 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Your project is using a new material to construct a large
warehouse in your city. This new material is cheaper than traditional building materials, but it takes some
time to learn how to use the material properly. You have communicated to the project stakeholders that
you will be able to save costs by using the new material, but you will need a few extra weeks to complete
training to use the materials. This risk response of learning how to use the new materials can also be
known as what term?
A. Team development
B. Benchmarking
C. Cost of conformance to quality
D. Cost-benefits analysis
Answer: C

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NO.16 You are the project manager of the NHJ project for your company. This project has a budget at
completion of $1,650,000 and you are 60 percent complete. According to the project plan, however, the
project should be 65 percent complete. In this project you have spent $995,000 to reach this point of
completion. There is a risk that this project may be late so you have taken some measures to recover the
project schedule. Management would like to know, based on current performance, what the estimate at
completion for this project will be. What is the estimate at completion?
A. $1,650,000
B. $1,666,667
C. $663,333
D. -$8,333
Answer: B

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NO.17 Your organization has named you the project manager of the JKN Project. This project has a BAC of
$1,500,000 and it is expected to last 18 months. Management has agreed that if the schedule baseline
has a variance of more than five percent then you will need to crash the project. What happens when the
project manager crashes a project?
A. Project risks will increase.
B. The project will take longer to complete, but risks will diminish.
C. Project costs will increase.
D. The amount of hours a resource can be used will diminish.
Answer: C

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NO.18 You are project manager for ABD project. You, with your team, are working on the following activities:
Probabilistic analysis of a project.
Probability of achieving cost and time objectives.
Trends in Qualitative Risk Analysis results.
On which of the following processes are you working on?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Identify Risks
Answer: B

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NO.19 There are five outputs of the risk monitoring and controlling process. Which one of the following is NOT
an output of the process?
A. Organizational process assetsupdates
B. Risk register updates
C. Vendor contracts
D. Change requests
Answer: C

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NO.20 You are the project manager of the KJH Project and are working with your project team to plan the risk
responses. Consider that your project has a budget of $500,000 and is expected to last six months. Within
the KJH Project you have identified a risk event that has a probability of .70 and has a cost impact of
$350,000. When it comes to creating a risk response for this event what is the risk exposure of the event
that must be considered for the cost of the risk response?
A. The risk exposure of the event is $245,000.
B. The risk exposure of the event is $500,000.
C. The risk exposure of the event is $350,000.
D. The risk exposure of the event is $850,000.
Answer: A

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NO.21 You are the project manager of the GYH project for your organization. Management has asked you to
begin identifying risks and to use an information gathering technique. Which one of the following risk
identification approaches is an information gathering technique?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Assumptions analysis
C. SWOT analysis
D. Documentation reviews
Answer: A

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NO.22 John is the project manager of the NHQ Project for his company. His project has 75 stakeholders,
some of which are external to the organization. John needs to make certain that he communicates about
risk in the most appropriate method for the external stakeholders. Which project management plan will be
the best guide for John to communicate to the external stakeholders?
A. Risk Response Plan
B. Risk Management Plan
C. Communications Management Plan
D. Project Management Plan
Answer: C

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NO.23 Tracy is the project manager of the NLT Project for her company. The NLT Project is scheduled to last
14 months and has a budget at completion of $4,555,000. Tracy's organization will receive a bonus of
$80,000 per day that the project is completed early up to $800,000. Tracy realizes that there are several
opportunities within the project to save on time by crashing the project work. Crashing the project is what
type of risk response?
A. Transference
B. Mitigation
C. Exploit
D. Enhance
Answer: D

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NO.24 Tom is the project manager for his organization. In his project he has recently finished the risk
response planning. He tells his manager that he will now need to update the cost and schedule baselines.
Why would the risk response planning cause Tom the need to update the cost and schedule baselines?
A. New or omitted work as part of a risk response can cause changes to the cost and/or schedule
baseline.
B. Risk responses protect the time and investment of the project.
C. Risk responses may take time and money to implement.
D. Baselines should not be updated, but refined through versions.
Answer: A

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NO.25 Lisa is the project manager of the SQL project for her company. She has completed the risk response
planning with her project team and is now ready to update the risk register to reflect the risk response.
Which of the following statements best describes the level of detail Lisa should include with the risk
responses she has created?
A. The level of detail is set by historical information.
B. The level of detail should correspond with the priority ranking.
C. The level of detail must define exactly the risk response for each identified risk.
D. The level of detail is set of project risk governance.
Answer: B

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NO.26 Sammy is the project manager for her organization. She would like to rate each risk based on its
probability and affect on time, cost, and scope. Harry, a project team member, has never done this before
and thinks Sammy is wrong to attempt this approach. Harry says that an accumulative risk score should
be created, not three separate risk scores. Who is correct in this scenario?
A. Harry is correct, because the risk probability and impact considers all objectives of the project.
B. Harry iscorrect, the risk probability and impact matrix is the only approach to risk assessment.
C. Sammy is correct, because organizations can create risk scores for each objective of the project.
D. Sammy is correct, because she is the project manager.
Answer: C

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NO.27 Examine the figure given below.
What will be the expected monetary value of Risk C?
A. -$113,750
B. $175,000 if the risk event actually happens
C. -$175,000
D. -$27,000
Answer: D

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NO.28 Shelly is the project manager of the BUF project for her company. In this project Shelly needs to
establish some rules to reduce the influence of risk bias during the qualitative risk analysis process. What
method can Shelly take to best reduce the influence of risk bias?
A. Group stakeholders according to positive and negative stakeholders and then complete the risk
analysis
B. Determine the risk root cause rather than the person identifying the risk events
C. Establish risk boundaries
D. Establish definitions of the level of probability and impact of risk event
Answer: D

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NO.29 What risk identification technique allows participants to identify the project risks and to remain
anonymous?
A. Influence diagrams
B. Assumptions analysis
C. Surveys
D. Delphi technique
Answer: D

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NO.30 You are preparing to start the qualitative risk analysis process for your project. You will be relying on
some organizational process assets to influence the process. Which one of the following is NOT a
probable reason for relying on organizational process assets as an input for qualitative risk analysis?
A. Studies of similar projects by risk specialists
B. Risk databases that may be available from industry sources
C. Review of vendor contracts to examine risks in past projects
D. Information on prior, similar projects
Answer: C

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Exam Code: A10

Exam Name: CIPS (Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply)

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NO.1 Q3. Which one of the following performance indicators is best used to assess whether there are
slow moving stock items in a store?
A. Total number of items held
B. Average number of stock issues over a period
C. Total value of stock held
D. Average number of deliveries received
Topic 3, A
A

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NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
Q16. Identify FIVE areas that should be covered when appraising the buyer's performance.
Topic 1, D
D

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NO.3 Q6. Which of the following tools of analysis can be used to classify stock?
A. Value chain analysis
B. ABC analysis
C. SMART analysis
D. Quantum analysis
Topic 1, D
D
NO: 8 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. An organisation wishes to review its procurement processes to try and achieve
operational benefits.
You have been asked by the senior materials manager to advise on how the
process should proceed, as follows:
(a) List THREE key tasks where buyers' performance is directly linked to the
objectives of supply management.
(b) For each of the three key tasks, give an example of how the purchaser??s
performance could be measured.
(c) Explain how a review of these key tasks could benefit an organisation.
Topic 5, B
B
9.
Q2. Which of the following is Pareto's Law?
A. The law of supply and demand
B. The law of vendor rating
C. The 80/20 rule
D. The 90/30 rule
10.
Q3. Which one of the following is a recognised measure of financial performance?
A. Stock exchange viability test
B. CLIP performance
C. Net profit before tax
D. Sales analysis

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NO.4 THE CHARTERED INSTITUTE OF PURCHASING &SUPPLY
ADVANCED CERTIFICATE IN PURCHASING AND SUPPLY
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply Management
A10
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*SECTION B: Questions 11?¡ìC16 are worth 5 marks each. You are advised to spend
approximately 50 minutes on this section.
*SECTION C: Questions 17?¡ìC19 require full answers with examples where appropriate.
Question 17 is worth 20 marks. Questions 18 and 19 are worth 15 marks each. You are advised to
spend a minimum of half an hour on each question.
*Answers should be written in this answer booklet in the spaces provided. If you require
continuation paper you should request this from the invigilator. Your candidate number and
question number must be clearly marked on each sheet of continuation paper.
*All answers must be written in ink. Pencil should only be used where graphs/diagrams are
required. Cross out any work which you do not wish to be examined.
*Rough working must be shown, and crossed out.
*The use of silent, battery-operated, non-programmable calculators is permitted.

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NO.5 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. Microfast Foods is concerned about the cost of holding large quantities of stocks for its food
processing operation, in particular the issue of the high cost of perishable ingredients and
'waste'. The company has no formal procedure for tracking levels and usage of inventory
within its stores. The managing director of Microfast has asked you to advise him as follows:
a) Briefly explain to the managing director why it is important to continually review and
measure inventory levels.
b) Within the stores and warehouse environment there are THREE factors that need to be
examined ?¡ìC Economy, Efficiency and Effectiveness ?¡ìC in relation to performance
measures. The managing director is unsure of the detail. Provide a brief explanation of
each in the context of this business.

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NO.6 Advanced Certificate in Purchasing and Supply
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply
A10
Senior Assessor's Report
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
The senior assessor??s report is written in order to provide candidates with feedback relating to
the examination. It is designed as a tool for candidates ?¡ìC both those who have sat the
examination and those who wish to use as part of their revision for future examinations.
Candidates are advised to refer to the Examination Techniques Guide (see the following link
http://www.cips.org/documents/ExaminationtechniquesguideFeb07.pdf) as well as this senior
assessor??s report.
The senior assessor??s report aims to provide the following information:
* An indication of how to approach the examination question
* An indication of the points the answer should include and how marks are allocated
* An indication of candidate performance for the examination question
APPENDIX
A syllabus matrix for the examination is included as an appendix. It highlights the learning
objectives of the syllabus unit content that each question is testing.
The unit content guides are available to download at the following link:
http://www.cips.org/studyqualify/cipsqualifications/syllabuses/
ADDITIONAL SOURCES OF INFORMATION
The Supply Management magazine is a useful source of information and candidates are advised
to include it in their reading during their study. Please see the following link to the Supply
Management website http://www.supplymanagement.com/
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Question 11
Answer should identify FIVE of the following key points (1 mark was allocated for each correct
point) - initial briefing regarding performance areas, identification of what the organisation requires
from the employee, highlighting of any problems, is performance on track?, feedback during the
meeting, can the employer provide any assistance and have any training needs been identified.
The qualities of responses to this question were quite high and many candidates scored a good
level of marks.
Question 12
Candidates were required to LIST any FIVE of the following - increased leverage, ease of control
of fewer suppliers, greater opportunities of negotiation, increased joint development potential,
value adding initiatives may be explored, more use of supplier agreements, less transactional
activity, more use of strategic procurement.
The majority of candidates answered this question very well, with strong responses giving four or
five correct points. Weaker answers gave incorrect examples of the benefits of reducing the total
number of suppliers.
Question 13
Candidates were required to explain TWO ways in which purchasers could achieve continuous
professional development. Candidates should recognise that 2 ? marks are available for the
explanation of each 'way'. This breaks down as 1 mark available for identification of each method
with up to a further 1? marks available for the explanation of how the method used would benefit
the purchaser (or their employer). Areas that answers could include were: own study, attendance
at professional association meetings, attendance on courses/distance learning, formal training,
site visits, job rotation, or academic achievement.
The overall approach to this question could have been better. This is a key section within the
learning outcomes of this unit and many candidates performed poorly and identified areas that
were irrelevant to the context of the question. A few strong answers managed to correctly identify
two ways and briefly explained the value of the concept, in the context of purchaser's professional
development.
Question 14
Part (a) asked for THREE correctly titled key performance indicators (KPIs), for example, stockturns,
service levels, stock damage, stock accuracy, accuracy of pick rates (1 mark for each
appropriate KPI, up to 3 marks). Part (b) required candidates to explain how the use of KPIs can
improve the management of stock.
Many candidates gave incorrect KPIs for part (a), or failed to list insufficient KPIs. Many poor
answers focused on efficiency and effectiveness, rather than actually identify a KPI measure.
Following on from this part (b) was poorly answered as a result of the candidate failing to
understand the context of the question. This is a key part of the unit content and it is important that
candidates address this syllabus topic.
Question 15
Benchmarking is a key concept and allows buyers to assess the suitability or performance of a
supplier when compared to a known standard.
Part (a) required candidates to describe the purpose of supplier benchmarking. Benchmarking
provides information which may be used to select the correct supplier or motivate a potential
supplier to improve its products or overall performance.
Part (b) required candidates to list two problems that can be encountered with benchmarking.
There were many weak answers to this question and this may suggest a knowledge gap in the
candidates who sat this paper. Many responses gave a poor or inappropriate response to part (a)
and incorrect examples for part (b). Some answers gained marks for part (b) but were awarded no
marks for an incorrect answer to part (a).
Question 16
Candidates were required to explain TWO measurements that contribute to a simple vendor
measurement system. Examples that could have been explained are: quality ?¡ìC quantity of
acceptable deliveries as a percentage, deliveries ?¡ìC percentage of accurate on-time deliveries,
after sales service ?¡ìC response time set against an agreed target
Many candidates scored highly on this question by correctly identifying two measures and then
giving an appropriate explanation. A few candidates gave inappropriate answers or failed to
adequately explain what the measure was.
Topic 4, E
E

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NO.7 Topic 1, D
D
1. CORRECT TEXT
Q11. Identify the FIVE stages that should be followed to ensure an effective staff appraisal.
Topic 2, F
F

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Exam Code: FM0-306

Exam Name: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 12)

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NO.1 What will a recursive custom function do when a stack limit is exceeded?
A. returns !
B. returns ?
C. returns Error 1203: Unexpected end of calculation
D. produces a spinning beach ball (Mac OS X) or a rotating cursor (Windows)
Answer: C

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NO.2 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records ... nor the Delete
related records ... settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 12 Advanced?
A. 10, 000
B. 32, 000
C. 50, 000
D. 64, 000
Answer: D

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NO.4 DRAG DROP
Identify the default ports used in FileMaker Server 12 (choices may be used more than once).
Answer:

NO.5 Which statement is true given two FileMaker Pro 12 files, Vendors and Products, if a table from
Products appears on the Vendors Relationships Graph?
A. Scripts in Vendors can reference data from global variables defined in Products.
B. Layouts from Products can be displayed in the same window as layouts from Vendors.
C. Vendors can contain multiple valid external FileMaker Data Sources referencing Products.
D. A table occurrence from Products is required on the Vendors Relationships Graph in order to call a
script in Products from Vendors
Answer: C

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NO.6 DRAG DROP
Match the FileMaker Server 12 hosting technology with the maximum number of concurrent client
connections.
Answer:

NO.7 What is the theoretical maximum record count in a FileMaker Pro 12 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: A

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NO.8 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula: FirstName & "
" & LastNarne FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is
checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified
C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 12 Advanced?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an External
ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the FileMaker
Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two statements are true about container fields that are configured to Store container data
externally in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two)
A. Container data stored externally using Secure storage is encrypted.
B. FileMaker Pro 12 can store a maximum of 64 million external files per database file.
C. It is possible to customize the directory location where FileMaker Pro 12 will store external container
data.
D. Once a container field has been configured to store data internally, the data must be re-imported if the
field is changed to store data externally.
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables:
And the relationship is configured as follows:
Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table.
B. Users may create new Order records by entering data into a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
C. A merge field can be used on layouts based on the Salesperson table occurrence to show a list of all of
a salesperson's orders.
D. Removing the sort from the Order side of the relationship will not change the way that Order records
are displayed in a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
E. List (Salesperson:: Salesperson ID) calculated from the context of the Order table returns a list
containing the Salesperson ID for the current order.
Answer: B,E

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NO.13 Which two statements are true about FileMaker Pro 12 relationships? (Choose two.)
A. Valid relationships can include unindexed match fields.
B. The % (contains) operator can be used for join criteria that include one unindexed match field.
C. When editing match fields for a relationship, no more than 16 pairs of match fields can be used.
D. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) will only include records with non-matching match field
values.
E. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) match will allow the Delete related records in this table
when a record is deleted in the other table option.
Answer: A,E

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NO.14 For which field type can the field validation setting Strict data type: Numeric Only be applied?
A. Text
B. Date
C. Integer
D. Summary
E. Timestamp
Answer: A

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NO.15 A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter calculated value,
with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace existing value of field
unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be refreshed
with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer record
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which statement is true about the Relationships Graph in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. Table occurrences can represent tables from external JDBC data sources.
B. A single Relationships Graph can include references to no more than 256 external files.
C. A set of relationships between tables can be created as a loop if every table occurrence in the loop has
a unique name.
D. The Allow creation of records in this table via this relationship setting can be selected between two
table occurrences if the relationship includes only equality (=, or ) matches between fields.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. Create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. Find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. Create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. Display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
Answer: B,E

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NO.18 DRAG DROP
Identify the default ports used in FileMaker Server 12 (choices may be used more than once).
Answer:

NO.19 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but not both
Answer: D,E

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NO.20 Given two tables in FileMaker Pro 12 with the following fields and table occurrences:
What two methods can be used to add a portal to a layout based on the Players table, which
shows only the names of the current player's teammates, but not the current player's name? (Choose
two.)
A. base the portal on the relationship Players:: Team ID = Teammates:: Team ID Anduse a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerIDSelf
B. base the portal on the relationship Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID Seta sort order of PlayerID.
Ascending on the relationship, and Configurethe portal to have an Initial row value of 2.
C. basesthe portal on the multi-predicate relationship: Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID AND
Players: PlayerIDTeammates:: PlayerID
D. base the portal on the relationship Players:: TeamID = Teammates:: TeamID Anduse a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerIDTeammates:: PlayerID
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: I10-003

Exam Name: XML Master (XML Master Professional Database Administrator)

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NO.1 Assume that you wish to improve the response time when executing the following [XQuery]
on a
certain XMLDB.
Which one of the answers below is not an appropriate point to be checked?
Assume that the XMLDB does not have any automated optimization functions related to the
answer choices.
A. Revise the [XQuery] expression
B. Revise the configuration of the relevant XML data index
C. Investigate the disk capacity size used by the XMLDB
D. Investigate the influence of any exclusive access controls performed by other processes when
executing the [XQuery]
Answer: C

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NO.2 Assume that perfect fidelity of a complete XML document is required in a certain XML
document.
Select the most suitable method for providing perfect XML document fidelity when storing an XML
document using the following methods.
Here "perfect XML document fidelity" means that an XML document retrieved from the XMLDB is
exactly the same as the original XML document prior to XMLDB insertion, completely identical
when compared using binary, including empty element notations, whitespace locations, etc.
A. Store the XML document as a model based on XPath 1.0
B. Store the XML document as a model based on XML Information Set (Infoset)
C. Store the XML document as a BLOB (Binary Large Object) type with no character encoding
method defined
D. Store the XML document as an NCLOB (National Character Large Object) type for which UTF-
8 has been defined as the character encoding method
Answer: C

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NO.3 Assume that a certain XMLDB has an HTTP listener function, and can receive XML documents
via
HTTP protocol.
In this case, the XMLDB follows [Procedure] below to identify the character encoding method of
the XML document received.
[Procedure]
(1) If the XML document character encoding method can be determined from the HTTP request
header, process the XML document character encoding according to the HTTP request header
information.
(2) If the XML document character encoding method cannot be determined from the HTTP request
header, identify the character encoding from the XML document itself
Select which is correct as the identified character encoding resulting from the procedure above
when the XMLDB receives a well-formed XML document according to [Conditions] below. Assume
that the XMLDB follows RFC3023.
[Conditions]
The actual character encoding method for XML document is "UTF-16;" however, no XML
declaration is specified.
The HTTP request header defines "Content-Type: text/xml." however, the charset parameter is not
defined in this Content-Type header field.
A. US-ASCII
B. UTF-8
C. UTF-16
D. The character encoding method is determined from system locale, and is therefore
undetermined
Answer: A

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NO.4 Continuously check the data types for the values in the XML document, and search through
data using queries on the XML document
[Management Methods]
A) XML document file (text file) management via file system
B) Management via RDB (relational database), and program for storing data from an XML
document into the RDB (assume the RDB does not maintain an XML document tree structure)
C) Management via XMLDB, using XML Schema definitions
D) Management via XMLDB, without using XML Schema definitions
A. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
B. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
C. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Answer: A

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4. Select which of the following is not a correct description regarding dynamic context defined by
XQuery 1.0.
A. Dynamic context is information that is available at the time the expression is evaluated
B. The dynamic context consists of all the components of the static context (default element/type
namespace, etc.), and additional components (context item, etc.)
C. The value of context size (one of the dynamic context components) can be obtained using the
"fn:last()" function
D. Query prolog cannot be used to set the value for any of the dynamic context components
Answer: D

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NO.5 Four separate operating requirements and four individual storage management methods for
XML
document data are listed below.
Considering the general characteristics, which individual management method ([Management
Methods]) combines most optimally with which requirement ([Operating Requirements])?
[Operating Requirements]
1. Retrieve a portion of the XML document according to values in the XML document
2. Identify the XML document by unique values, and retrieve the entire XML document
3. Perform aggregation and statistical calculations of the values in the XML document

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Exam Code: VCP-510

Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VSphere 5)

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NO.1 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.11 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.12 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.16 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.18 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.19 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.20 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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